ielts general reading test

  • IELTS General Reading Test 13 – with Answers


    Reading Passage – 1

    Read the text below and answer Questions 1– 6.

    A. Waitrose – High Street Branch

    Position available for two cleaners
    Night shift and/or early morning
    Must be able to work unsupervised, to a time limit.
    No experience is needed.
    Must have own transport.
    Drop-in and ask for Pete Evans


    Do you have a bubbly outgoing personality?
    Love children?
    Good singing voice. Responsible and positive attitude.
    Will run musical workshops for preschool children.
    Classes are 30-45 minutes in length/training provided
    Own transport essential.
    Call ABC Academy – Brook Street between 10 am – 2 pm and ask for Jenny.

    C. Dog Walker

    An animal-loving person needed to walk our two lovely Yorkshire Terriers three times a week.
    Evenings preferred.
    No weekends 16 years or older is ideal
    Call: 0916-202-7445 to apply

    D. Nanny Wanted

    To help look after two children – 2 and 5 years old.
    Experience useful but patience and willingness to learn is enough.
    Accommodation, food, and pocket money are provided.
    Flexible working times. Ideal for a foreign student studying English.
    Please send resume and photo to – [email protected]

    E. 20 full-time volunteers wanted

    One-year project.
    Willing to relocate with free accommodation. Basic salary provided.
    Supporting people with disabilities and young people from broken homes.
    18-65 can apply.
    Experience preferred but not essential.

    Questions 1-6

    Look at the seven job advertisements, A-G, and read the descriptions of people below.

    Which is the most suitable job for each person?

    Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

    1. a person willing to move location for one year. Salary is low but ideal for someone interested in social work.
    2. a high school student who loves exercise and animals with a few evenings free every week
    3. an independent kind of person prepared to work at night or early mornings with transport
    4. a high school graduate looking for their first job, must like talking to people
    5. a cheerful person who loves working with young children who is able to sing and has his own transport
    6. a person who loves working with young children in return for a basic allowance, accommodation, and time to study

    Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

    Mobile Phone Etiquette

    Etiquette is a code of behavior that allows people to follow the standards accepted in society. Although these rules can change from country to county many similarities can be found. Many of the manners we develop are based on three categories; health, courtesy, and cultural norms. It is through these that we develop the customs and habits of a society.

    Etiquette # 1
    This is where you have to think more of others than yourself. Don’t think of all those times that you had to put up with people talking on the phone in the cinema, on the train, and in the queue at McDonald’s. Simply imagine all the ways other people will find you annoying if you use your mobile phone.

    Etiquette # 2
    The good thing about people is that sooner or later someone will tell you that you are annoying them. Their request to stop talking or talk quietly might seem unreasonable but if you really want to be a model mobile phone user just follow their request.

    Etiquette # 3
    To stop #2 from happening, and to keep your secrets to yourself then keep your distance – 3 meters – between you and anyone else.

    Etiquette # 4
    Even if you are following #3 you don’t need to shout. This just makes it easier for people to hear you and much easier to annoy them.

    Etiquette # 5
    Remember, people don’t want to hear you talking on the phone so they certainly don’t want to hear the other person either. Don’t turn your speaker on!

    Etiquette # 6
    If you don’t want to be talked about keep your personal details to yourself. This means that #3 is probably not far enough from wagging ears. Either save the conversation for later or start using text messaging.

    Etiquette # 7
    Don’t multi-task; it could cost you your life. Don’t use the time you are spending in a queue to phone someone and certainly don’t use the mobile phone when you are driving. In many countries this is illegal but it is also dangerous. National data show mobile phones were involved in 350 fatal crashes in 2011.

    Etiquette # 8
    There are many places such as a library; museum, theatre, and hospital where, hopefully, common sense tells you not to use your phone. 

    Questions 7-14

    Complete the notes below.
    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet


    Etiquette # 1
    Don’t think about the people you have met using their phone in front of or behind you. Stop using your phone if you think people will find it 7…………………………….

    Etiquette # 2
    Other people will tell you about your phone etiquette. If they don’t like it they might ask you to 8………………………………………

    Etiquette # 3
    f you want to keep your 9……………………… to yourself then keep 10…………………………..

    Etiquette # 4
    Even if you are not near anyone that is no excuse to shout. People will still hear you.

    Etiquette # 5
    Remember that people don’t to hear you and so they definitely don’t want to hear the person you are talking to.

    Etiquette # 6
    If you really want to keep the conversation between the two of you then 11…………………………. is the best way to keep people from hearing.

    Etiquette # 7
    Trying to do too many things at once can be a problem. You know that using your mobile in a 12………………….. is frowned upon but using it in your car could be fatal. In America, of all car accidents, there were 13………………… fatalities in 2011 because the driver was using a phone.

    Etiquette # 8
    Finally, if you have any 14………………, you should know that talking on your mobile in a theatre is a big no-no in mobile phone etiquette.

    Reading Passage – 2

    Read the passage below and answer the Questions 15-21.

    Self-Study Tips

    However difficult you find it to arrange your time, it will pay off in the long run if you set aside a certain part of the day for studying – and stick to it. It is best to make a weekly allocation of your time, making sure that you have enough left for recreational activities or simply to be ‘with’ yourself: reading a novel or watching a television programme.

    As part of your weekly schedule, it is also advisable to consider exactly what you have to do in that week, and make sure that you tackle the most significant tasks first, leaving the easier or less urgent areas of your work until later.

    On a physical level, make sure that you have an area or space for studying. Don’t do it just anywhere. If you always study in the same place, preferably a room of your own, you will find it easier to adjust mentally to the activity when you enter that area. You should have everything that you might need at hand.

    Make sure that all the physical equipment that you use, such as a desk, chair etc. is at a good height for you. If you use a personal computer, there are plenty of guidelines available from the government on posture, angles, lighting and the like. Consult these and avoid the typical student aches and pains.

    If you are doing a long essay or research paper which involves the use of library books or other articles, it helps to keep details of the titles and authors on small cards in a card box. It is also a good idea to log these alphabetically so that you can find them easily – rather like keeping telephone numbers. It’s all too easy to read something and then forget where it came from.

    Make use of equipment that is available to you. If you find a useful article in the library, it is best to make a copy of the relevant pages before you leave. Then, when you get back to your study, you can mark the article and make any comments that you have in the margin.

    If you are working on a topic your teacher has set, but finding it hard to concentrate, it may be that you actually need to take your mind right off it for a period of time. ‘Airing the mind’ can work wonders sometimes. After a period away from the task, having not thought about it at all, you may return to it refreshed and full of ideas.

    Similarly, it may help to discuss a topic with other people, especially if you feel that you have insufficient ideas or too many disorganized ideas. Bring your topic up in conversations at mealtimes or with other students and see what they have to say. You don’t want to copy their ideas but listening to what they think about something may well help you develop or refine your own thoughts.

    Questions 15-21

    The Reading Passage “Self-study Tips” has eight paragraphs, A-H.

    Choose the correct heading for paragraphs, B-H, from the list of headings below..

    Write the correct number i-xii, in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    i.   Consult your teacher
    ii.   Take a break
    iii.   Make a timetable
    iv.   Create a working space
    v.   Sit comfortably
    vi.   Study at home
    vii.   Talk about your work
    viii.   Photocopy important material
    ix.   Catalogue references
    x.   Use the library
    xi.   Prioritise your work
    xii.   Exercise regularly

    Example:- Paragraph A     Answer:-    iii

    15.  Paragraph  B
    16.  Paragraph  C
    17.  Paragraph  D
    18.  Paragraph  E
    19.  Paragraph  F
    20.  Paragraph  G
    21.  Paragraph  H

    Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.


    From Paragraph to Essay
    Of particular relevance to students who wish to improve their organisational skills and who feel that their final product is never clear enough.
    Thursday 10-12
    Kiran Singh

    Communicate by Mail
    Owing to the popularity of last term’s course, this is a repeat. Requests for information, notification of personal details and enclosures will be looked at. Please note that this is not a business course.
    Friday 2-4
    Cella Rice

    Source Material
    How do you gather information for a project or paper? A practical course that looks at sources of information and how to use cataloguing systems.
    Monday 10-11
    Kiran Singh

    Express Yourself
    An advanced course suitable for students who are about to step into organisations where they may have to voice their opinions in various forums.
    Monday 12-2
    Dave Parrin

    Media Use
    Open to all students, this course focuses on the many ways we can profit linguistically from the radio and television. Use of video essential. Group projects form part of course.
    Tuesday 9-11
    Steve Ansell

    The Short Story
    A venture into the world of popular writers. One story is selected for adaptation into a short play and group performance. Pre-arranged groups welcome.
    Thursday 11-1.30
    Mrs Owen

    Caught for Speeding
    Open to all students. Simple eye exercises to help you skim and scan. How to be selective on the page. Using headings, topic sentences and paragraphs for easy access.
    Wednesday 11-1
    Mrs Owen

    Quote Me if You Must
    The do’s and don’ts of using source material. How to incorporate it into your own work in an acceptable way. How not to plagiarise other people’s articles, books etc.
    Tuesday 9-10.30
    Dr Johnson

    The Job for Me
    Finding it, applying for it and getting it. Where can it all go wrong? Written and oral course with simulation exercises using authentic newspaper advertisements.
    Friday 10-11.30
    Fabbeh AI-Hussein

    Can I Help You?
    Practical course for students who wish to improve their telephone skills. Breaks the ice for newcomers. No written skills required.
    Wednesday 3-5
    Mike Vas

    The Customer is Always Right
    An interesting angle – how do you reply to letters from customers? What tone is best and when? How do you achieve results?
    Wednesday 11-1
    Cella Rice

    Tense about Tenses
    For those who worry about their individual words – a look at tenses and other aspects of the language through poetry and song. Good voice helps but not essential!
    Saturday 10-12
    Steve Ansell

    Questions 22-27

    Look at the twelve descriptions of courses, A-L, in the text above.

    For which description are the following statements true?

    Write the correct letter, A-L, in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    22.  This course would be useful for dealing with letters of complaint.
    23.  This course will help you use the libraries.
    24.  This course will improve your performance at interviews.
    25.  This course will help you with acknowledging your sources.
    26.  This course will help you improve your reading skills.
    27.  This course will help you improve your grammar.

    Reading Passage – 3

    Read the passage below and answer the Questions 28-40.

    The shock of the Truth

    A. Throughout history, there have been instances in which people have been unwilling to accept new theories, despite startling evidences. This was certainly the case when Copernicus published his theory – that the earth was not the centre of the universe.

    B. Until the early 16th century, western thinkers believed the theory put forward by Ptolemy, an Egyptian living in Alexandria in about 150 A.D. His theory, which was formulated by gathering and organizing the thoughts of the earlier thinkers, proposed that the universe was a closed space bounded by a spherical envelope beyond which there was nothing. The earth, according to Ptolemy, was a fixed and immobile mass, located at the centre of the universe. The sun and the stars revolved around it.

    C. The theory appealed to human nature. Someone making casual observations as they looked into the sky might come to a similar conclusion. It also fed the human ego. Humans could believe that they were at the centre of God’s universe, and the sun and stars were created for their benefit.

    D. Ptolemy’s theory, was of course, incorrect, but at the time nobody contested it. European astronomers were more inclined to save face. Instead of proposing new ideas, they attempted to patch up and refine Ptolemy’s flawed model. Students were taught using a book called The Sphere which had been written two hundred years previously. In short, astronomy failed to advance.

    E. In 1530, however, Mikolaj Kopernik, more commonly known as Copernicus, made an assertion which shook the world. He proposed that the earth turned on its axis once per day, and travelled around the sun once per year. Even when he made his discovery, he was reluctant to make it public, knowing how much his shocking revelations would disturb the church. However, George Rheticus, a German mathematics professor who had become Copernicus’s student, convinced Copernicus to publish his ideas, even though Copernicus, a perfectionist, was never satisfied that his observations were complete.

    F. Copernicus’s ideas went against all the political and religious beliefs of the time. Humans, it was believed, were made in God’s image, and were superior to all creatures. The natural world had been created for humans to exploit. Copernicus’s theories contradicted the ideas of all the powerful churchmen of the time. Even the famous playwright William Shakespeare feared the new theory, pronouncing that it would destroy social order and bring chaos to the world. However, Copernicus never had to suffer at the hands of those who disagreed with his theories. He died just after the work was published in 1543.

    G. However, the scientists who followed in Copernicus’s footsteps bore the brunt of the church’s anger. Two other Italian scientists of the time, Galileo and Bruno, agreed wholeheartedly with the Copernican theory. Bruno even dared to say that space was endless and contained many other suns, each with its own planets. For this, Bruno was sentenced to death by burning in 1600. Galileo, famous for his construction of the telescope, was forced to deny his belief in the Copernican theories. He escaped capital punishment but was imprisoned for the rest of his life.

    H. In time, however, Copernicus’s work became more accepted. Subsequent scientists and mathematicians such as Brahe, Kepler, and Newton took Copernicus’s work as a starting point and used it to glean further truths about the laws of celestial mechanics.

    I. The most important aspect of Copernicus’ work is that it forever changed the place of man in the cosmos. With Copernicus’ work, the man could no longer take that premier position which the theologians had immodestly assigned him. This was the first, but certainly not the last time in which man would have to accept his position as a mere part of the universe, not at the center of it. 

    Questions 28 – 34

    The text has nine paragraphs, A-I.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Select the correct letters A-I, and write your answers on your answer sheet.

    28. the public’s reaction to the new theory
    29. an ancient belief about the position of the earth
    30. Copernicus’s legacy to the future of science
    31. How academics built on Copernican ideas
    32. An idea that is attractive to humans
    33. Out-dated teaching and defective research
    34. Scientists suffer for their beliefs

    Questions 35 – 40

    Look at the following statements and the list of people (A-I) below.

    Match each statement with the correct person and write the appropriate letters (A-I) in boxes 35 -40 on your answer sheet.

    List of People

    A. Ptolemy
    B. George Rheticus
    C. Kepler
    D. Newton
    E. Bruno
    F. Galileo
    G. Copernicus
    H. Mikolaj Kopernik
    I. William Shakespeare

    35. He, among others, used Copernicus’s theories to advance scientific knowledge.
    36. He proposed an inaccurate theory based on the work of early philosophers.
    37. His attitude to the new theory was similar to that of the Church.
    38. He was killed because of his belief in the new theory.
    39. He was responsible for Copernicus’s ideas being made public.
    40. He had to go to jail because he believed in the new theory.

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 12 - Answers



    1. E
    2. C
    3. A
    4. G
    5. B
    6. D
    7. annoying
    8. stop talking / talk quietly
    9. secrets
    10. your distance
    11. text messaging
    12. queue
    13. 350
    14. common sense
    15. xi
    16. iv
    17. v
    18. ix
    19. viii
    20. ii
    21. vii
    22. K
    23. C
    24. I
    25. H
    26. G
    27. L
    28. F
    29. B
    30. I
    31. H
    32. C
    33. D
    34. G
    35. D
    36. A
    37. I
    38. E
    39. B
    40. F


  • IELTS General Reading Test 12 – with Answers

    Reading Passage 1

    Read the text and answer the Questions 1-13.


    Summer Holiday Coach Tours would like to announce its new tours that will be available this coming Summer. This is your chance to visit some of the undiscovered beauties of England and have a holiday that is completely new and exciting for those of you who enjoy active holidays this is a good opportunity to get out in the open air, We do incorporate some relaxing elements, however, into some of our tours for those who want to take a break.

    Our tours are two weeks long and we welcome people from all walks of life. There will be a range of activities provided in the evenings as well as during the day, which will suit all different types of people. The best part about England Summer Holiday Tours is that we have designed our tours to cater to different age groups. We have three different tours on offer:

    When? 1st – 15th August

    Where? The Tours cover Cornwall, Poole, Somerset, and Oxfordshire to name a few.

    Tour 1 (18-30 years old) this tour is very active and includes lots of sports. It begins in Cornwall where there will be lots of surfing, sailing, and diving. Or, if you prefer canoeing, coast steering, and caving we have that, too! After two days the coach will take everyone on to Poole, where there will be walking tours and swimming. Then, it will be up to Somerset to do some fantastic rock climbing and abseiling.

    Tour 2 (30-45 years olds) This tour includes long walks in the beautiful countryside. We will begin in Oxfordshire and then make our way up north to Nottingham, Yorkshire, and the Lake District. In the evening there will be wine tasting and trips to some nice restaurants. Climbing has been arranged during the stay in the Lake District.

    Tour 3 (45 plus) This Tour is a relaxed tour that includes country walks through Cambridge, Suffolk, and Kent. Horse riding has been organized during the stay in Kent and spas and massages are also available at the end of a long day’s walk. We will stop off for breaks from the walks to take picnics and a tour of Cambridge University has also been organized.

    Accommodation and food: hotels will be booked for every night of the tour and food will be provided in the hotel except on the nights when there are trips to restaurants. Stay in the hotel and the food will be included in the total cost of the tour. Trips to restaurants are optional and cost extra.


    Tour 1: The tour costs $700 per person which includes all accommodation, activities, and sports.

    Tour 2: The tour costs $550 per person which includes all accommodation, wine tasting, and climbing.
    Restaurant trips cost extra.

    Tour 3: The tour costs $500 per person which includes all accommodation, horse riding, spas, massages, and picnics. Restaurant trips cost extra.

    For more information Please Call: 0800 444 222

    Questions 1-4

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In spaces 1-4, write

    TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

    1. The holiday will be similar to a beach holiday. …………………………………………………
    2. There will be no shortage of organized events. …………………………………………………
    3. These holidays would not appeal to more mature age groups. ……………………………………….
    4. Those participating in activities will delight in getting to know new areas. ………………………..

    Questions 5 and 6

    Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
    Write your answers in spaces 5-6.

    5. Which tour places an emphasis on aqua sports?

    6. Which event in one of the three tours will help with relaxation?

    Question 7

    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    7. England Summer Holiday Coach Tours organize
    A. only holidays that are very active.
    B. holidays for a wide age range.
    C. holidays in two different parts of England only.
    D. the same tours for all age groups.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 8-13.

    Saturday, March 5th

    Attention all Salsa Fanatics!

    А ……………………..London Salsa is a new and exciting club that has opened in the heart of London to cater for all of those who want to swing their hips and get into the groove with some upbeat, Latino music. This exciting new Salsa club will bring some life and soul to London’s Regent Street which is where the club is situated.

    B …………………..This newly built nightclub will have many different events going on. Friday and Saturday nights are Salsa party time with food and a live Salsa band playing! On weeknights, we will have experienced Salsa teachers here from 7 pm to 9 pm for all those who want to learn the basic steps of Salsa. Once the lessons are finished you can dance the night away!

    C ………………….There is no booking needed for Salsa classes. The entrance will be £8 on weeknights for Salsa classes and £10 on weekends for the parties and food. Just come along on any night to take part, meet fun and exciting people and keep dancing all night long! 

    Questions 8-10

    The text has three paragraphs, A, B and C. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A, B, and C from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number, i-vi, in spaces 8-10. Questions 8-10

    List of Headings

    i. Take part in a dance competition
    ii. The chance to see a Salsa concert
    iji. The cost to take part
    iv. A new arrival on the social scene
    v. The programme of events
    vi. A way to meet single people

    8. Section A .…………
    9. Section B ……………
    10. Section C ……………

    Questions 11-13

    Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for your answer.

    Write your answer in spaces 11-13.

    11. A..……………is not a prerequisite, so if you want to take part in salsa classes just turn up at the door.
    12. The newly built Salsa club …………… Regent Street, in the heart of London.
    13. Salsa dancing lessons will be on offer for two hours on …………………

    Reading Passage 2

    Read the text below and answer questions 14-20.


    Tower Bridge is a combined bascule and suspension bridge in London, England, over the River Thames. it is close to the Tower of London, which gives it its name and has become an iconic symbol of London.

    Plans for the Tower Bridge were devised around 1876 when the east of London became extremely crowded and a bridge across the Thames in that area of the city seemed a necessity. It would take another eight years, and lots of discussions about the design, before construction of the bridge started.

    The bridge, designed by city architect Horace Jones, in collaboration with John Wolfe Barry, would eventually be completed in 1894. Five contractors and nearly 450 workers were involved in the construction of the 265-meter long bridge. It took 11,000 tons of steel to build the framework. At the time many people disliked its Victorian Gothic design, but over time the bridge became one of London’s most famous symbols.

    The bridge consists of two towers that are tied together at the upper level by means of two horizontal walkways which are designed to withstand the horizontal forces exerted by the suspended sections of the bridge on the landward sides of the towers. The vertical component of the forces in the suspended sections and the vertical reactions of the two walkways are carried by the two robust towers. The bridge’s present color dates from 1977 when it was painted red, white, and blue for the Queen’s Silver Jubilee. Originally, it was painted a chocolate brown color.

    Tower Bridge is sometimes mistakenly referred to as London Bridge, which is actually the next bridge upstream. A popular urban legend is that in 1968, Robert McCulloch, the purchaser of the old London Bridge that was later shipped to Lake Havasu City, Arizona, believed that he was in fact buying Tower Bridge.

    Taking photographs of the Tower Bridge is a favorite London tourist activity, but you can also go inside the bridge, where you’ll have a magnificent view over London from the walkway between the two bridge towers.

    Inside the bridge is the Tower Bridge Exhibition, a display area that encompasses the walkway and the two famous towers where you can observe the Victorian engine room. Visitors can learn about the history of the bridge via photos, films, and other media.

    Questions 14-17

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In spaces 14-17, write

    TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

    14. The building of Tower Bridge began in 1876………………..
    15. People didn’t really appreciate how the bridge looked when it was first built……………………
    16. People preferred the original color that the bridge was painted in………………
    17. It is a common misapprehension, that London Bridge is Tower Bridge………………

    Questions 18-20

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, from the box below.

    Write the appropriate letter, A-F, in spaces 18-20.

    18. The idea to build Tower Bridge came about because…………….
    19. Today, Tower Bridge is widely recognized as………………….
    20. People do not only take photos of the bridge,…………………

    A. people didn’t like its design.
    B. people consider it one of the most famous London landmarks.
    C. it was originally the bridge that was called London Bridge.
    D. they also enter within, thereby gaining access to a panoramic view of London.
    E. East London became increasingly congested, requiring the construction
    of a bridge to traverse the Thames.
    F. they film the bridge as well.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

    Minutes of Nightingale House: Older People’s Retirement Home Meeting

    Topic of Meeting: Changes and Modernisation to Nightingale House.
    Government allowance: £100,000
    September 21st
    The meeting was attended by Jane Smith, Edmund Theobald, Vivien Kato and Neil Turner.

    Change 1 – The Balint Wing
    Edmund Theobald suggested that the government allowance of £100,000 should be used to modernize the Balint Wing of Nightingale House. He has proposed that new beds should be put into all the residents’ rooms and the walls need to be painted. The eating area in this section needs a new kitchen and tables. All residents need new basins in their bathrooms as well. These changes are important for hygiene and health reasons.

    Change 2 – The reception area
    Vivien Kato proposed that the money would be better spent updating the reception area of the home. New sofas need to be provided as the current ones are old and unattractive. The elderly residents enjoy sitting in this area so some pictures could be put on the walls. New computers are needed for the receptionists, which is important, as they keep all the information about the residents on these computers. A porter needs to be employed who will keep a record of all the visitors that come in and out during the day. This is important for the security of the home.

    Change 3 – The restaurant area
    Neil Turner put forward the idea that the restaurant area should be totally renovated and changed. The purpose of this is for visitors to bring their elderly relatives who are living in the home to the restaurant and enjoy a nice relaxing meal. This would be beneficial to the residents because they can relax in a nice environment away from their living area. A new menu can be supplied as well as a more modern restaurant decor with chairs and tables. A coffee machine could be installed as well.

    It was decided that the £100,000 of government money should be spent on the Balint Wing as this is where the residents actually live and is deemed to be more important than the other two suggestions. Beds for residents have been considered a priority as their sleeping area is more significant for their well-being and health than any other part of the home.

    It was decided to reconvene in a week to set down the proposal on paper to present to the local government authorities.

    Jane Smith

    Managing Director of Nightingale House 

    Questions 21-23

    Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for your answer. Write your answers in spaces 21-23.

    The Balint Wing
    New beds
    Walls to be painted
    New kitchen and tables

    The reception area
    New sofas
    New computer s
    Pictures on the walls

    The restaurant area
    New menu
    Tables and chairs
    A coffee machine

    Questions 24-27

    Classify the following as being the views of

    A. Edmund Theobald
    B. Vivien Kato
    C. Neil Turner

    Write the correct letter A, B or C in spaces 24-27.

    24. It is good for residents to eat and spend time with their family in a different area……………….
    25. Certain changes need to be made to ensure cleanliness and physical well-being of the elderly residents……………..
    26. It is advisable to monitor the movement of non-residents, entering and leaving the building……………..
    27. A change of scene is welcome for the elderly residents when they want to relax………………….

    Reading Passage 3

    Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

    The Life of an Amah

    Life in China at the beginning of the 20th Century was a very different world than today, especially for women. It was often a very hard life with most women working in the rural areas of China for nothing more than a hand-to-mouth living. For many women in Guangdong province by the Pearl River Delta, however, life was to change forever.

    The villages they lived in by the Delta that had once been surrounded by fishponds were now replaced by mulberry trees. This meant large quantities of white mulberry leaves to feed silkworms. This was a chance for many women in the area to grab their independence and they did this by working in China’s now booming silk industry.

    It is estimated that over two million women were involved in the silk industry. They took great pride in their independence and refused a conventional lifestyle. They formed sisterhoods and refused to get married, swore oaths of chastity, and moved out of their family homes into spinster houses or vegetarian halls as they were called. Some women even held funeral services for a ‘sister’ who had decided to marry.

    By the 1930s, however, it was all over. The silk industry had been badly affected by the world depression and many of the once-thriving factories were forced to close leaving many women jobless. Some managed to maintain their independence by becoming domestic servants. These were the amahs. By moving to Hong Kong, Singapore, and other Southeast Asian countries they could earn enough money (5$ a month) to live a reasonable life and continue their independent lifestyle.

    An amahs social life took place in a ‘coolie fong’. This was a 2-3 story building rented by a sisterhood. It was here where she would spend time after her working day was over or on days off. It was a place to relax, share stories with other ‘sisters’, hear about new job opportunities, and collect any letters that had been sent to her from her family in China.

    Sisterhoods usually ranged in size from six to ten women but could have up to thirty members. The sisterhood networks helped women migrate from the silk areas of China into cities overseas. Once the ‘sisters’ had arrived in one of these cities, the sisterhoods trained the women in various skills to be a cook, lady’s maid or baby amah, and assisted them in finding jobs and in relocating them if their work situation was unsatisfactory. The training provided by the sisterhood usually helped the ‘sister’ become a valued servant and, therefore, to receive the wages she asked for.

    In many ways, the sisterhood was similar to a primitive labor union in that members established job definitions and minimum wages for each job. If a member was treated badly by an employer, other ‘sisters’ refused to work for the employer. Sometimes one sisterhood dominated the domestic staff of a whole apartment building. In such cases the sisterhood controlled who was hired, and if an employer fired a ‘sister’ without just cause, the sisterhood made it very difficult for the employer to hire another servant.
    Sisterhoods also established loan associations for their members, which were especially important for immigrants separated from possible family assistance. The loan associations also acted as investment clubs where the women pooled their savings to buy property where they could retire together.

    Every amah had a different routine as this partly depended on the size of the family they were working for and whether they were European or local. Europeans tended to be more demanding. Some households would hire more than one amah but others would only hire one. For many amahs, this was a good thing. Although they had to work harder they felt they were more independent and free of typical domestic servant arguments. These amahs were usually known as “one-leg kick” (or “yat keok tek” in Cantonese) since they did all the work in the household.

    A typical workday began when she woke up early in the morning around 5 a.m. and, after getting herself ready, she would start cooking breakfast. After doing the dishes, she swept and tidied up the house. When that was done, she washed the clothes and prepared lunch. After cleaning up, she did the ironing. When that was done, she took a bath. It would then be time to cook again. By the time dinner was over, and she had cleaned up and finished the dishes, it would be about 9 p.m. A 16-hour day that was repeated seven days a week with only an occasional half-day off.

    Sometimes known as ‘black and whites’ because they often wore white shirts and black pants with their hair in a bun or a long braid falling down their backs, they were seen as an elite group of servants that were hard working, trustworthy, and completely loyal to the families they worked for.

    Stories of their complete loyalty are common with one amah jumping into the sea to rescue her English charge who had accidentally fallen from the ship. Others even worked for free if their employees lost their job and couldn’t pay them. In return, the amahs were not exploited but treated like members of the family. Indeed, it was the loyalty that led to them being called amah as the Cantonese word for mother is amah.

    Questions 28-32

    Complete the flow chart below.
    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

    Sisterhoods usually had up to 28………….members
    Their networks stretched all the way to 29……………..
    Sisterhoods offered training in 30…………….and help in finding jobs
    A trained Amah was able to get the 31……………..she wanted
    Sisterhoods acted rather like a 32……………controlling salaries

    Questions 33-35

    Answer the questions below.
    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

    33. What were silkworms given to eat?
    34. Why did many silk factories close?
    35. How would sisterhoods help women buy a property?

    Questions 36-40

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?

    True – if the statement agrees with the information
    False – if the statement contradicts the information
    Not given – if there is no information on this

    In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

    36.  Most Amahs never wanted to marry.
    37.  Amahs would often get letters from China.
    38.  Some Amahs were called “one-leg kick” because they were kicked by their owners.
    39.  Amahs were given a regular day off.
    40.  Amahs were considered the best of the best.

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 12 - Answers


    1. FALSE
    2. TRUE
    3. NOT GIVEN
    4. TRUE
    5. Tour I
    6. (space and/or) massages
    7. B
    8. iv
    9. v
    10. iii
    11. booking
    12. is situated
    13. weeknights
    14. FALSE
    15. TRUE
    16. NOT GIVEN
    17. TRUE
    18. E
    19. B
    20. D
    21. New basins
    22. A proper
    23. New Decor
    24. C
    25. A
    26. B
    27. B
    28. 30/thirty
    29. China
    30. various skills
    31. wages
    32. (primitive) labour union
    33. (white) mulberry leaves
    34. world depression
    35. investment club s
    36. True
    37. Not given
    38. False
    39. False
    40. True

  • IELTS General Reading Test 11 – with Answers


    Read the passage below and answer Question 1-14, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.


    Renovating a house can be a thrilling experience. However, it is cumbersome always also, as your entire house becomes a mess. The following steps help you to make the renovation process go smoothly:

    1. Inspect the house to note which areas need renovation and whether the renovation, and whether the renovation required is structural or only cosmetic. A structural renovation will require demolishing and rebuilding parts of or the entire house, while cosmetic changes will be like painting the house or repairing parts of it.

    2. Make a list of the work that you want to get done and note it in a book.

    3. Figure out your budget for the renovation process. You will not want to overspend but you should not fall short of money either.

    4. Decide whether you want to renovate yourself or need the help of a contractor. It depends on the kind of work that needs to be done.

    5. Estimate whether the cost of renovation fits your budget. While you calculate the cost for different tasks, remember to add 10% to it, as the final cost differs from the initial estimate.

    6. Decide where you will put up while the house is being renovated. If part of the house is being renovated, then you can stay in the other part. Else you might need to rent a place temporarily.

    7. For renovation projects likely to last for a long time, try to cover one section at a time, this way you can spread out your expenditure as well.

    8. Plan which part to do first and contact the right people to do work accordingly.

    Questions 1-4

    Complete the sentence below. Use NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

    1. Renovation of house causes inconveniences due to the …………………….. created.

    2. Changing wallpaper or texture painting is an example of ……………………. change.

    3. Assign a budget, as you would not want to ……………………. .

    4. You need to decide on your accommodation during the ……………………. process.

    Questions 5-7

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? Write

    True – if the statement agrees with the information

    False – if the statement contradicts the information

    Not given – if there is no information on this

    5. Cost of renovation must stay within your budget.

    6. Do not rent another place unless you have undertaken only partial renovation.

    7. You should spread out your expenditure.

    Read the text below and answer questions 8-14.


    Madame Tussauds is a wax museum known for recreating life-size wax models of historical and royal figures, Film stars, sports stars, and infamous murderers. It was founded by wax sculptor Marie Tussaud. It has branches in a number of major cities of the world.

    Inside Madame Tussauds

    There are 14 zones, over 300 wax statues, a chamber of horrors and screams, the spirit of London ride, and an amazing 4D movie experience with marvel superheroes.

    How to reach

    There are numerous ways to arrive at Madame Tussauds, from the convenient subway to bus stops to car parks nearby.


    The museum opens at 9:30 am with the last entry at 5:30 pm every day of the year. Weekend timings are 9:00 am to 6:00 pm. If you happen to come in the latter part of the day, you will still be able to explore the place for 90 minutes after the last admission time.  The museum is quite packed till 4:00 pm.

    Tickets and offers

    Don’t miss out on great online discount offers. Book in advance online.

    Age/Group Spot booking (You may stand in the queue) Online Ticket (Quick entry)
    Adult (16+) $25 $21.50
    Children (3-15) $20 $15.50
    Family $100.60 $79.20
    IELTS General Reading Test 11

    Under 3’s go free in the company of their parents.

    A family ticket comprises 2 adults and 2 children; alternatively 1 adult and 3 children.

    A complimentary guidebook is included in the family pack.

    Access to disabled

    Guests with disabilities are transported from floor to floor through elevators by trained personnel. Do book in advance; for safety reasons, we allow only three wheelchair users at any given time in the building. Hearing loops are also available for a deposit of $20. 

    Questions 8-10

    Choose the appropriate options (A-D) to complete the following statements and write your answers next to questions 8-10.

    8. A visitor who seeks to enter Madame Tussauds at 5.00 p.m. on weekdays

    A. Is not allowed

    B. Has only half an hour

    C. Has one and half hours

    D. Has a good two hours

    9. Discounted online tickets

    A. Provide fast entry into the museum

    B. Must be availed of the same

    C. Offer 20% discount

    D. Are not offered at weekends

    10. The number of persons who can use a wheelchair within the premises at a specific time is

    A. 3 or less

    B. 4 or less

    C. No more than two

    D. Not mentioned

    Questions 11-14

    Use No More Than Three Words and/or a Number from the text to answer questions 11-14.

    11. In which city is the museum talked about, located?

    12. How many hours does the Wax Museum remain open for entry at weekends?

    13. Which ticket offers a free tour book?

    14. How much is the security deposit for procuring a hearing device?

    Reading Passage 2

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15—20.

    The Murgatroyde Corporation Employee Manual

    Chapter 8: Professional Development Requirements

    All employees of the Murgatroyde Corporation are required to attend fifteen hours of professional development workshops or classes in each calendar year. While there are many opportunities provided by the company, professional development hours can also be earned externally at local training centers, colleges, and other locations.

    Listings of upcoming professional development opportunities offered by the company are posted on the company website and updated frequently. Employees can register for these workshops online. Before signing up for a particular workshop, employees should check with their supervisors to make sure they can be excused from their duties on the date of the workshop.

    Employees who wish to receive professional development credit for attending workshops or courses offered elsewhere should provide their supervisor with materials describing the opportunity. The supervisor will determine whether the workshop or course is pertinent to the employee’s work. After obtaining the supervisor’s approval, the employee can apply to the Human Resources Office for tuition reimbursement if tuition is to be paid.

    Employees attending any workshop offered by the company will receive a certificate of attendance. The number of professional development hours earned will be reported to the Human Resources Office by the workshop organizer. In order to receive professional development credit for a course or workshop offered outside the company, the employee must have the workshop organizer complete a company Proof of Attendance form, and the employee must then submit the form to the Human Resources Office within one month of the end date of the course. Timely submission of this form is required in order for credit to be granted. There are will be no exceptions.

    Questions 15-20

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers on lines 15—20 on your answer sheet.

    15. Employees can choose from professional development workshops and classes offered…………..or at local training centers or colleges.

    16. Employees can find out which workshops will be offered by looking at………………………

    17. It is the responsibility of…………………. to decide whether a workshop is relevant.

    18. Employees who need help paying for a class or workshop can ask the Human Resources Office for……………………………

    19. The workshop presenter will let the Human Resources Office know how many ………………..the employee should be credited with.

    20. Professional development credit will be granted for workshops taken outside of the company if a special form is filled out by………………………..

    Read the text below and answer Questions 21—27.

    Hampford College

    Work-Study Program

    Certain students at Hampford College may be eligible for the College Work-Study Program. To determine eligibility and to apply for the program, read the information below.

    * The Hampford College Work-Study Program is open to all full-time Hampford College students, regardless of the particular study program in which they are enrolled. The program is not open to part-time students. Information on financial support programs for part-time students is available in the Counseling Center.

    * Before applying for a work-study position, the student must demonstrate financial need. To do this, complete the Statement of Financial Need Form,

    * To apply for a work-study position, submit a letter of interest to the Work-Study Program Office, describing your skills and interests. You may also, but are not required to, submit a resume describing any previous jobs you may have held. Students both with and without an employment history are eligible for the program.

    * Once you have been approved for the program, look at the help-wanted ads posted on the Counseling Center website. All of the jobs are located at the college. You may apply for any job that you are interested in. Please note that job placement is subject to job availability. While we make every effort to place all Work-Study Program students in a job, there are no guarantees.

    * All work-study students must be students in good standing at the college; that is, they must receive passing grades in all their courses in order to continue in the program the following semester.

    * Work-study positions are generally for one year. Students wishing to continue in the program after one year must resubmit their applications. 

    Questions 21—27

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text about the Hampford College Work-Study Program?

    On lines 21-27 on your answer sheet, write:

    TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

    FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

    NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

    21. The Work-Study Program is available to all students at the college.

    22. Work-study students must prove that they require monetary support.

    23. Work-study students must choose a job that is related to their study program.

    24. Previous work experience is required to participate in the Work-Study Program.

    25. All students in the Work-Study Program will be given a job.

    26. Work-study students cannot stay in the program if they receive failing grades.

    27. Work-study students have to apply for the program every year.

    Reading Passage 3

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Reading Passage 3 below.

    Green Energy

    As energy prices rise and the effects of greenhouse gas emissions become more widespread, people everywhere are becoming increasingly concerned about using fossil fuels. More and more people are turning to so-called “green technologies” as a way to reduce dependence on nonrenewable fossil fuels. The ideal alternative energy source would be sustainable (the supply will not be exhausted), clean (no emissions), and reliable. The three most popular alternative energy sources are geothermal power, solar power, and wind power.

    Since geothermal energy taps heat from the earth, its resources range from water found just below the surface of the earth, to hot water and hot rock found a few miles below the surface, to even deeper rock of extremely high temperatures. In a process similar to drilling for oil, wells as deep as a mile or more can be drilled into underground reservoirs to tap steam and hot water that are used to run turbines and create energy. Power companies can then transmit this energy over power lines.

    Geothermal power on a smaller scale can be used for heating and cooling houses or commercial buildings. Geothermal heat pumps, also known as ground-source heat pumps, rely on the fact that the earth beneath the surface remains at a relatively constant temperature throughout the year. Like a cave, the ground is warmer than the air above it during the winter and cooler in the summer. The geothermal heat pump transfers the heat stored in the earth into the building during the winter and transfers it out of the building and into the ground during the summer. The ground, in other words, acts as a heat source in winter and a heat sink in summer. While geothermal heat pumps are an emissions-free and reliable source of energy, the biggest disadvantage is that such systems are expensive to install.

    Solar energy has come a long way from the clunky boxes of the 1970s. Today, solar energy is commonly collected by sleek and efficient photovoltaic (PV) panels. The photovoltaic cells convert sunlight directly into electricity and are made of semiconductors such as crystalline silicon or other thin-film materials. The benefits of solar power vary according to how much exposure a given building has to the sun. However, one does not need to live in the desert to take advantage of solar power. Cloudy Germany is the worldwide leader in the use of solar power.

    Solar power is not as pricey as geothermal power, but having a panel professionally installed can still be costly. Some enterprising homeowners reduce the initial costs by purchasing inexpensive kits and setting up the system on their own. The biggest disadvantage of a solar power system is its dependence on the amount of sunlight collected, but some cutting-edge panels can generate energy even in the rain.

    Wind power is created when the wind is used to generate mechanical power or electricity. Most wind turbines convert the wind’s kinetic energy into mechanical power. The wind turns the blades, which spin a shaft connected to a generator. A generator then converts this mechanical power into electricity. A group of wind turbines can produce electricity and feed it into the utility grid, where it is sent through transmission lines to homes and businesses. Like solar and geothermal energy, the wind is a renewable resource that produces no emissions.

    Small wind energy systems can be used by homes, farms, or communities. Such systems can be connected to the larger electrical grid or used for stand-alone energy generation—a particularly attractive option for anyone living far from power company lines. A grid-connected wind turbine can reduce one’s reliance on the power company for electricity. If the turbine cannot deliver the needed energy, the power company then makes up the difference. However, in order to take advantage of wind energy, a turbine must be in an area with an average wind speed of at least 10 miles an hour, and such systems can be very expensive.

    Whether a given home or business uses wind, solar, or geothermal power depends on a variety of economic and environmental factors. However, experts agree that investing in alternative energy now—whether by individuals or power companies—will pay dividends in the future.

    Questions 28—30

    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers on lines 28—30 on your answer sheet.

    These days, people are interested in reducing their consumption of 28………………………… They are looking at sources of 29…………………… to supply their power needs. People want sources that are 30………………………do not cause pollution, and can be consistently depended on.

    Questions 31-33

    Which of the following facts about geothermal energy are mentioned in the passage?

    Choose THREE answers from the list below and write the correct letters, A—E, on lines 31—33 on your answer sheet.

    A. is easiest to use where there is a plentiful supply of groundwater

    B. is used to run power plants

    C. costs a good deal of money to set up

    D. requires electricity to power the heat pump

    E. is used for cooling as well as heating buildings

    Questions 34-36

    Which of the following facts about solar energy are mentioned in the passage? Choose

    THREE answers from the list below and write the correct letters, A-E, on lines 34-36 on your answer sheet.

    A. can be used even in areas without intense sunlight

    B. the panels are usually installed on the roof of the house

    C. does not have to be installed by a professional

    D. the amount of power generated fluctuates with the amount of exposure to the sun

    E. is often used by farmers to power electric fences

    Questions 37-40

    Which of the following facts about wind energy are mentioned in the passage?

    Choose FOUR answers from the list below and write the correct letters, A—G, on lines 37-40 on your answer sheet.

    A. wind turbines are considered unsightly by many people

    B. is used by individual home-owners as well as by power companies

    C. the energy that it generates cannot be stored for later use

    D. must be installed in an area that receives a certain amount of wind

    E. wind turbines create a lot of noise

    F. can be used in conjunction with electricity supplied by a power company

    G. is as clean a source of energy like geothermal and solar systems

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 10 - Answers


    1. mess

    2. cosmetic

    3. overspread

    4. renovation

    5. Not given

    6. False

    7. Not given

    8. D

    9. A

    10. A

    11. London

    12. 9/nine hours

    13. Family ticket/Family

    14. £20

    15. by the company

    16. the company website

    17. the supervisor

    18. tuition reimbursement

    19. professional development hours

    20. the workshop organizer

    21. FALSE

    22. TRUE

    23. NOT GIVEN

    24. FALSE

    25. FALSE

    26. TRUE

    27. TRUE

    28. fossil fuel

    29. alternative energy

    30. sustainable

    31. B

    32. C

    33. E

    34. A

    35. C

    36. D

    37. B

    38. D

    39. F

    40. G

  • IELTS General Reading Test 10 – with Answers

    Reading Passage – 1

    Read the text below and answer Questions 1–7.

    Thank you for volunteering to work one-on-one with some of the students at our school who need extra help.

    Smoking is prohibited by law in the classrooms and anywhere on the school grounds.

    Volunteers are responsible for their own personal safety and should notify the school of any preexisting medical conditions. Prescription and any other medications that you normally carry with you must be handed in to the school nurse on arrival and collected on departure. If you require them, the nurse will dispense them to you in her office.

    A signing book is located at an office reception. Please sign this register every time you come to the school. This is important for insurance purposes and emergency situations. After signing the book, collect a Visitor’s badge from the office. This must be worn at all times when you are on school premises. Remember to return the badge afterward.

    Teachers will communicate with volunteers via telephone, email or messages left at the office. Always ask for messages. You may communicate with teachers in the same way – the preferred method is to leave a memo in the relevant teacher’s pigeonhole. These can be found at the end of the corridor in the staffroom block.

    We understand that your time commitment is entirely voluntary and therefore flexible. If your personal schedule should change and this affects your availability, please contact the Coordinator for Volunteers at the school on extension 402; alternatively, you could drop into her office situated in F block.

    The Coordinator is responsible for matching volunteer tutors with students, organizing tutorial rooms, ensuring student attendance, and overseeing volunteer tutor training. If you encounter any problems, contact her as above.

    Questions 1–7

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

    In boxes 1–7 on your answer sheet, write:

    TRUE – if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE – if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN – if there is no information on this

    1.  As a volunteer, you will be helping students individually.
    2.  You may smoke in the playground.
    3.  You cannot take any medicine while at school.
    4.  If you forget to sign the register, you won’t be insured for accidents.
    5.  The best way of communicating with teachers is in writing.
    6.  You can choose your own hours of work.
    7.  The coordinator keeps student attendance rolls.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14

    Camping in the Bush

    MINIMAL IMPACT BUSH WALKING Responsible campers observe minimal impact bushwalking practices. This is a code of ethics and behavior aimed at preserving the natural beauty of bushwalking areas.

    Good planning is the key to safe and successful camping trips. Obtaining a camping permit in advance of leaving to camp out overnight in a national park is obligatory. Bookings are also compulsory for some parks. There could be limits on group sizes in some parks. Occasionally campsites may be closed owing to bush-fire danger or for other reasons. Always obtain permission from the owner prior to crossing private property.

    As well as your usual bushwalking gear, you will need the right equipment for camping. A fuel stove and fuel for cooking are essential: not only is it safer, faster, and cleaner; but it is easier to use in wet weather. It is recommended that you pitch a freestanding tent that requires few pegs and therefore has a less ecological impact. Take a sleeping mat, if you have one, to put your sleeping bag on for a more comfortable night’s sleep. You will also need a hand trowel to bury human waste – for proper sanitation and hygiene.

    The traditional campfire actually causes a huge amount of environmental damage. If you gather firewood, you are removing the vital habitat of insects, reptiles, birds, and small mammals. When campfires lead to bushfires, they create an enormous danger to native bush inhabitants and bush-walkers alike and result in the destruction of the environment. Under no circumstances should you light a fire in the bush.

    Erect your tent at an existing site if possible; otherwise, try to find a spot where you won’t damage vegetation. Never cut branches or move rocks or disturb the soil unnecessarily. Aim to leave your campsite as you found it or even cleaner.

    Remove all rubbish – carry it out with you. Don’t attempt to burn or bury rubbish because this creates a fire hazard and/or disturbs the soil. Animals can dig up buried rubbish and scatter it about. Never feed the local wildlife – carry out all food scraps as these disturb the natural nutrient balance and can create weed problems.

    Keep on the track. Wear footwear suitable for the terrain. Take a map.

    Questions 8–14

    The passage refers to three ways in which campers should behave.

    Classify the following behaviors as something that campers

    A. must do
    B. may do
    C. must not do

    Write the correct letter A, B or C, in boxes 8–14 on your answer sheet.

    8. Get the landowner’s consent before walking across his land……………………..
    9. Use a sleeping mat………………………….
    10. Make a campfire in the bush………………………..
    11. Feed the birds……………………….
    12. Use a freestanding tent…………………………..
    13. Dig a hole to bury rubbish in……………………..
    14. Get authorization before setting out to camp in a national park………………………..

    Reading Passage – 2

    Read the text below and answer Questions 15– 21.


    Superheroes like Superman have powers that are the envy of many children and even adults. Yet, we don’t have to read comic books to find people with superpowers. These

    1. Leslie Lemke

    Born blind, he was 15 when he eventually learned how to walk. When he was 16 he played Tchaikovsky’s Piano Concerto No. 1. after hearing this piece of music on the television the previous night. He is now able to play any piece of music simply by listening to it once.

    2. Orlando Serrell

    He was not born a savant. He was ten years old when he was hit on the head with a baseball. Since then he has been able to perform complicated calendar calculations and remember the weather every day from the day of the accident.

    3. Kim Peek

    Kim was the inspiration for the character played by Dustin Hoffman in the Rain Man. His nickname is “Kimputer” because he has read over 12,000 books and remembers everything about them. He reads two pages at once – his left eye reads the left page and his right eye reads the right page – in 3 seconds!

    4. Stephen Wiltshire

    When he was nine he learned to talk but before this, he had already developed a love for drawing. After a helicopter ride in Tokyo, he drew an accurate and detailed view of the city on a piece of paper 10 meters long!

    5. Ellen Boudreaux

    Like Leslie Lemke, Ellen Boudreaux is a blind autistic savant with exceptional musical abilities. She can play music perfectly after hearing it just once. She can also walk around without bumping into things. She does this by making little chirping sounds that seem to act like a human sonar.

    6. Daniel Tammet

    Daniel is exceptionally gifted mathematically and linguistically. He can speak 11 languages fluently and learned one of them, Icelandic, in 7 days. He appears normal but Daniel contends that he actually had to will himself to learn how to talk to and behave around people.

    Questions 15-21

    Look at the following statements and the list of savants below.

    Match each statement with the correct savant, A-F.

    Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

    NB You may use any letter more than once.


    A. Leslie Lemke

    B. Orlando Serrell

    C. Kim Peek

    D. Stephen Wiltshire

    E. Ellen Boudreaux

    F. Daniel Tammet

    15. This savant reminds people of a computer as everything he reads he remembers.

    16. This savant learnt one language very quickly and speaks many more.

    17. This savant developed extraordinary powers after an accident.

    18 .This savant plays the piano.

    19. This savant inspired a movie.

    20. This savant avoids falling over with sonar-like ability.

    21. This savant loves to draw buildings with incredible

    Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27. 

    Job Sharing Job sharing is the perfect solution for people who want to carry on with their career but also raise a family. Before you do it you need to learn a few things as it can be more difficult than it might seem.

    Job Sharing Is Like Marriage

    When looking for a job share partner you need to look for someone that is the perfect teammate. You don’t need to find someone who is a carbon copy of you but certainly, they need to have a similar professional style, work ethic, and standards as you.

     Job Sharing Relies on Communication

    For a job share to work smoothly and efficiently you must work like one person. The transition from one person to another, from one day to the next must be seamless. Sharing information successfully can be done by setting up a shared email account, and using the same filing system to organize computer and paper files.

    Be Flexible

    No matter how well organized your schedule is things happen. Your child needs to visit the dentist. A friend flies in to visit you. A hundred and one reasons why you can’t be at work tomorrow. If you have a good job sharing relationship then your partner will cover for you.

    Job Sharing Means Less Income

    This might be obvious but when you job share you not only share the work but you also share the income. That’s right you will only get half the income maybe even less if you decide to do less than half the work.

    You Share Accomplishments

    Just as in marriage many things you do, probably all the things you do, will be achieved because of you and your job share partner. In other words, you must share any praise for accomplishments.

    Your Circumstances May Change

    No matter how much you like your job, things change and so your commitment to it might also change. Things that you can’t predict now might make you think about getting a full-time job again; your spouse might move to another city, you decide to go back to university who knows what the future might bring?

    Questions 22-27

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    22. You don’t have to find an exact copy of you when looking for a job share partner but they must have similar…………….

    23. A successful job share means being able to share information with the same filing system so that each day flows into another in a…………………………manner.

    24. One thing is certain and that is no matter how well prepared you are …………………………will happen.

    25. An important thing to remember is that when you job share you won’t get the ………………..of a fulltime job.

    26. In a job share you can no longer accept all the……………………………………

    27. You might not always have the same…………………………….because your life might be moving in another direction.

    Reading Passage – 3

    Slow Pood is an international grassroots movement dedicated to preserving the cultural heritage of good food. It started as a humorous protest against the spread of 7 fast food around the world and has developed into a major advocate for the world’s unique food products. The movement’s logo is a snail. Since being founded in 1986 the Slow Food snail has crept from its home in Italy to 45 other countries around the world and now boasts over 650,000 members. The movement challenges the loss of flavor resulting from the industrialization of food and agriculture. Its approach is ‘eco-gastronomic’. Slow Food is committed to compiling and distributing information about local foods, drinks and culture. Its purpose is to preserve endangered foods, encourage bio-diversity, and support small-scale producers of ethnic and local products around the world.

    Modern agri-business has given the world cheap food with little taste, produced at a high cost to the environment. Slow Food has been instrumental in developing initiatives to revive products that take time and craftsmanship to create and which are threatened by global corporate practices. Protecting traditional local products also means safeguarding the people and ecosystems involved in their manufacture. It also provides incentives for the pursuit of production methods that are healthier for taste, the environment, and the agricultural economy.

    Statistics on the loss of biodiversity in our food chain are alarming. In less than a century over 300,000 plant species have disappeared — one plant species disappears every six hours. Today less than 30 varieties of plant feed 95% of the world’s population. In Europe, half the breeds of domestic livestock became extinct during the course of the twentieth century. The crisis over mad cow disease and the ongoing debate over genetically modified food have given Slow Food, with its emphasis on organic methods, unexpected political influence.

    In the space of a few years, Slow Food has become a major lobbying force in the European Union on agriculture and trade policy. Agribusiness practices that have become dominant worldwide are geared to produce in quantity. This is a carryover from agricultural policies set in the 1950s in Europe when hunger from the war was still a vivid memory. At that time, when the goal was self-sufficiency, farmers received subsidies according to the amounts they produced. There was and still is no reward for quality. Two generations ago, the average European family spent about one-half of its income on food. Today it spends about 15 percent. Surveys conducted by Slow Food show that a large majority of Italians would be willing to pay up to 20 percent more for food in order to guarantee its quality, especially given recent food scares and scandals.

    As national boundaries disappear in Europe and become more open around the world, food has emerged as an important source of identity. Slow Food’s position on globalization is that it has the potential to help as well as harm the small food producer. On the one hand, globalization has allowed multinational corporations to extend their reach to virtually every comer of the world. However, rather than being afraid of the fast-food giants, Slow Food is attempting to offer an alternative choice of “virtuous globalization” by choosing to focus on quality and helping the small, local producer to access the global market.

    The Slow Food organization had to find ways to ensure its own economic viability. An initial strategy to generate income through publishing led to a number of food guides that were quickly successful Some of the most popular of these feature restaurants serving authentic, local foods at local prices. Numerous and varied initiatives have sprung up since. The popular quarterly magazine, ‘SLOW’, features articles about food culture around the world. Italy’s largest food show, the ‘Salon de Gusto’, sponsored by the Slow Food movement, provides an international market to hundreds of small producers whose goods, until recently, rarely left their village or region. Now there is even ‘slow travel’. A growing number of tour operators in Italy, France, Australia, and India subscribe to the movement, promoting “cultural and educational journeys using food and the people that produce it as the learning medium.” ‘Slow cities’ are entire communities dedicated to improving the quality of life for their citizens through environmentally sound, culturally-aware, eco-gastronomic policies and activities.

    Another significant initiative of Slow Food is the Ark of Taste, a database of endangered species of edible plants and domestic animals worldwide. Commissions have been set up in many countries to seek out and catalogue new products. So far, 800 products from 26 countries have been figuratively brought on board the Ark in an attempt to save them. The Ark of Taste has become an international project and a resource for agricultural biodiversity around the world.

    So, a movement that began as a humorous protest against fast food has, in its own organic way, evolved into a versatile and intelligent advocate for the protection of the environment. The best response to global forces challenging the ability to enjoy our food and our lives begin, according to the Slow Food movement, ‘at the table’. We are invited to slow down, appreciate the flavors of food and drink, and cultivate the art of living. Fast food isn’t likely to disappear, but Slow Food seems to be here to stay as well. Its message is getting through — encouraging pleasure-loving environmentalism as an alternative to the high-speed pace of the fast-food world. From its humble beginnings, Slow Food now includes a global network of people capable of generating ideas, and programs to defend the right to a responsible form of pleasure, respectful of cultural diversity, and available to all. 

    Questions 28-31

    The passage “Slow Food’ has 8 paragraphs(A-H).
    In which paragraph can the information below be found?

    28. a catalogue of domestic animals* at risk of disappearing
    29. statistics on the loss of variety in agricultural species
    30. initiatives to ensure the financial survival of the organization
    31. information on the food budget of an average family

    Question 32

    Which of the following does the Slow Food Movement NOT promote? The first one has been done for you. Indicate the letters of the remaining TWO.

    Answer:- D

    32…………………….. ………………………..

    A. old-fashioned cooking methods
    B. genetically modified foods
    C. endangered species of edible plants
    D. junk food culture
    E. the enjoyment of good food and drink
    F. high yield industrial fanning
    G. rare local domestic animals
    H. organic methods of production

    Questions 33-38

    Choose ONE phrase from the list (A-H) that matches each of the expressions below. There are more phrases than expressions so you will not use all of them. The first one has been done for you as an example.

    EXAMPLE:- Eco-gastronomy
    Answer:- G

    33. slow travel ……………
    34. Ark of Taste …………………..
    35. virtuous globalization……………………
    36. Salon de Gusto …………………
    37. agri-business ……………..
    38. SLOW ………………..

    List of Phrases
    A a resource for agricultural biodiversity
    B a showcase for Italian food products
    C a database of Slow Food members
    D helping local producers compete in the international market
    E published four times a year
    F operates in Europe, Asia, and Australia
    G promotes the protection of the environment and good eating (Example)
    H produces food using industrial methods

    Questions 39-40

    Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

    39. Following which crisis did the Slow Food movement become a political force?
    40. This movement was started as a reaction against what?

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 10 - Answers


    1. TRUE

    2. FALSE

    3. FALSE

    4. NOT

    5. TRUE

    6. TRUE

    7. TRUE

    8. A

    9. B

    10. C

    11. C

    12. B

    13. C

    14. A


    16. F

    17. B

    18. A

    19. C

    20. E

    21. D

    22. standards

    23. seamless

    24. things

    25. income

    26. praise

    27. commitment

    28. G

    29. C

    30. F

    31. D

    32. B,F

    33. F


    35. D

    36. B

    37. H

    38. E

    39. mad cow disease

    40. fast food

  • IELTS General Reading Test 9 – with Answers

    Reading Passage – 1

    Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.


    A love affair that lasts a lifetime

    It’s hard not to fall in love with Cornwall. For some, it’s the happy memories of a childhood seaside holiday. For others, it’s the brief fling of a teenage summer. For most, it’s a passionate affair that lasts a lifetime… So let the affair begin!

    Where is Cornwall?
    Located in the far west of Great Britain, Cornwall is almost completely surrounded by the sea and has a magnificent 300-mile coastline. It is also the location of mainland Great Britain’s most southerly promontory, The Lizard, and one of the UK’s most westerly points, Land’s End.

    What’s so special about it?
    There are lots of things Cornwall is loved for; the dramatic coastline with its captivating fishing harbours; the spectacular beaches and the pounding surf that provide a natural playground for a variety of water sports; and of course the Cornish pasty and cream teas.

    Expect the unexpected
    But there are also lots of things about Cornwall that may surprise you. For instance, the wilderness of Bodmin Moor with its panorama of big skies. There’s also the dynamic art scene found mainly in West Cornwall, inspired by the naturally stunning landscapes. More recently, Cornwall has become known for a food scene to rival London and beyond.

    History and culture
    Cornwall also has a tremendous history based on its Celtic roots; its Celtic Cornish culture; the warmth and friendliness of the people; and the Cornish language that can be seen in the village names. Cornwall is truly unique.

    Why not visit some of Cornwall’s most iconic experiences. From towering castles, beautiful gardens, and places steeped in legends and history, you’ll be spoilt for choice. Here are a few to get you started.

    Trebah Garden – near Falmouth
    One of the great gardens of Cornwall and rated among the 80 finest gardens in the world, discover the magic of this beautiful Cornish valley garden with over four miles of footpath.

    Lanhydrock – Bodmin
    Lanhydrock boasts a magnificent late Victorian country house with gardens and a wooded estate. Discover two sides of Victorian life: those ‘below stairs’, and those ‘upstairs’.

    Geevor Tin Mine – near Penzance
    Geevor tin mine is one of the largest preserved mine sites in the country and a Cornish Mining World Heritage Site. Housed in two acres of listed buildings, Geevor’s collections and guides bring the story of Cornwall’s rich industrial past to life.

    Questions 1-6

    Complete the sentences below.
    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

    1.  Cornwall has stunning coastal views including the most …………………… point in Great Britain.

    2.  Apart from the coastal views, the amazing landscapes have inspired an unexpected but thriving…………………….

    3.  Cornwall can now be compared to …………………… for its food and amazing chefs.

    4.  One thing that makes Cornwall different from the rest of England is its …………………… heritage.

    5.  The perfect place to discover insights into lifestyles from a bygone era is………………….. .

    6.  The perfect place to discover insights into Cornwall’s industrial past is a…………………… .

    Read the text below and answer Questions 7– 14.


    Worker bees are between 8-19mm in length. They are divided into three distinct parts; head, thorax, abdomen. They have an almost completely blackhead, a thorax that is golden brown and black with patches of orange, and yellow bands that can be easily seen on the abdomen. At the front of the head are two antennae for sensing their environment.

    They have four single wings. The largest are called forewings and the smallest hindwings. The hind legs are specialized for collecting pollen – each leg is flattened to form a pollen basket near the end of each leg.

    Love them or hate them, we need bees to pollinate many important food crops, including most fruit and vegetables. Bee-pollinated crops are important sources of vitamins A and C, and minerals like calcium. By pollinating attractive wildflowers like bluebells and poppies, bees also help support the natural environment that people love – benefitting us culturally and economically, as well as ecologically. Calculations from the University of Reading show that £510 million of annual total crop sales in the UK are pollinated by bees and other insects.

    What would happen if there were suddenly no more bees to pollinate these crops? This is a question being asked by farmers, beekeepers, and scientists because bees are now dying in their millions and they want to know why.

    It’s widely recognized now that changes in agriculture are the main cause of bee decline across Europe. For example, hay meadows, which are full of many different plant species, have declined by 97 percent since the 1930s, removing an important source of food for bees.

    This has happened because of the trend towards growing the same crop (monocultures) over large fields. This has reduced the diversity of flowers available and resulted in the removal of hedges. Species that have more specialized food needs, like the Shrill Carder Bee, have been particularly hard hit. It is now listed as an endangered species.

    With fewer hedges, bees find it more difficult to move between feeding and nesting sites. This is because hedges act as corridors for bees to move along, but with fewer hedges movement becomes more difficult.

    Pests and diseases are also a major threat to honey bees and other managed bees. The Varroa mite is thought to be one of the main causes of native honeybee loss. The impact on wild bees is harder to assess but ‘spill-over’ of diseases and pests between wild and managed bees has increasingly been observed.

    Climate change has an effect as it can alter the timing of plant flowering or the time that bees come out of hibernation, which means bees may emerge before there is enough food available.

    Questions 7 – 10

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    7. Apart from pollinating crops how else do bees help us?
    A. Economically
    B. culturally
    C. ecologically
    D. all of the above

    8.  Why has the variety of flowers available for bees to pollinate fallen?
    A. conservation measures
    B. less hedges
    C. fertilizers
    D. urban development

    9.  There are many reasons for the decline in bees but what is one of the major reasons for the shrinking numbers of native honey bees?
    A. Varroa mites
    B. spill-over
    C. managed bees
    D. hard to assess

    10.  Why might bees end their hibernation at a different time?
    A. to pollinate more flowers
    B. to get more food
    C. climate change
    D. to emerge with other bees

    Questions 11 – 14

    The diagram below shows the worker bee.

    Label the diagram.

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet.

    Reading Passage 2

    Questions 14-22

    Look at the Introduction to Kingston multipurpose Institute on the following page and the statements (Questions 14-22) below

    In boxes 14-22 on your answer sheet write

    True – if the statement is true
    False – if the statement is false
    Not given – if the statement is not given in the passage

    15. The institute is more than half a century old.
    16. The only problem about the institute is that racialism is prevalent here is veiled form.
    17. Some scholarships for meritorious students are available in this institute.
    18. Web technology is one of the subjects taught in this institute.
    19. The services of qualified counsellors are available here.
    20. Teaching is done with audio-visual aid here.
    21. The name of the institute was decided on the basis of the name of the founder of the institution.
    22. Those feeling confused regarding the working of the institution are advised to pay a personal visit to it.

    Kingston Multipurpose Institute

    You may be wondering why we insist on your joining this particular institute. You may also be puzzled about its names, particularly the used word “multipurpose”. We understand your difficulty, but we advise you to pay a visit to this institute and see with your own eyes to learn all about what we mean to say.

    Meanwhile, we tell you that this institute is about 40 years old and has stood the test of time. It has catered to the needs of thousands of students from different parts of the world. It is a multicultural institute with no racial overtone whatsoever. There is complete impartiality and transparency in the selection and promotion process. There is counseling, guidance, and help at every place. Personal attention is the hallmark of studies here. In fact, the institute is a unique ground for developing both interpersonal and interpersonal relations.

    The greatest charm of the student is the varied field of studies which are very much the order of the day. This is the only institute which teaches such order-of-the-day subjects as fashion Technology, Home Science, Vocal, Instrumental Music, Fine arts, Classical Folk dance, Metal and woodworks, Entrepreneurship and Journalism beside these traditional subjects like Arts, Humanities, Commerce and sciences. Indeed, the variety is limitless and you are only to make a choice according to your aptitude. For your convenience, even the services of a qualified, experienced counselor are available. Then the institute is also renowned for sports and extracurricular activities.

    To cap it all, the staff is highly qualified and dedicated, having a parent-like attitude. That is why you are regularly advised, encouraged and inspired in the most congenial atmosphere of this institute with all rooms air-conditioned and centrally connected and controlled.

    Note: Teaching is done with audio-visual aid.

    Questions 23-27

    Look at the information regarding “Cornfield Technical University” on the following pages. Each paragraph A-F provides a different kind of information.

    From the list below (i-ix) choose the most suitable summaries for paragraphs A-F. Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    NB: There are summaries than paragraphs, so you will not use them all

    i. The working of distance education.
    ii. The purpose of the university.
    iii. Modes of financial aids to deserving students.
    iv. Infrastructure of the university.
    v. Essentialities for the students.
    vi. Comparison with other universities.
    vii. Special field of the university.
    viii. The question of discipline.
    ix. The importance of science subject.

    23. Paragraph A
    24. Paragraph B
    25. Paragraph C
    26. Paragraph D
    27. Paragraph E
    28. Paragraph F

    Cornfield Technical University

    A. Cornfield Technical University (CTU) is recognized by over 100 countries of the world. The University was set up a decade back keeping in view the needs of the modern world. The main purpose is to provide state-of-the-art education to students at the most reasonable rates.

    B. The university has a spacious campus spread over several acres of land. It has over1000 learning centres all over the world. There are more than 150000 students on its roll. All the centres are well-equipped with modern labs and AC classrooms. Multi-entry and Multi-exit system exists in the university. There are daily 3 hours of teaching work at these centers with unlimited practical hour. The highly qualified staff not only gives lectures but also pays individual attention to every student. This faculty students interaction is an important feature of the university.

    C. This is briefly about the functioning of the university. There are more than three hundred courses on which certificates, diplomas, and degrees are rewarded by this university and are an airline, hotel, and travel industry. This university arranges at its center’s free information seminars and spot interviews for careers as an air hostess, flight steward, and hospitality and travel professionals. This university is known for the best cabin crew selections. It has exclusive cabin crew recruitment tie-ups with several renowned international airlines.

    D. Many middle-rung people feel handicapped in meeting the high expenses of their ward, in the matter of providing ultra-modern technical training to them. Keeping in view this fact, the university has arranged help from several philanthropic Non-government organizations. As such, not only does the university offers a very affordable fees structure and supplies free of cost all course material but also arranges scholarship, stipends, and grants to meritorious, but financially weak students.

    E. Apart from this, the university has excellent arrangements for distance education. In the remote areas of all countries where the certificates, diplomas, and degrees of the university are recognized, the students who cannot afford to approach any of the centers of the University for any reason, can avail themselves of the distance education programs of the university. The latest course material is sent well in advance charging the most affordable fees. There is a 20 percent concession for girls, handicapped persons, sportspersons, and defense personnel. However, each student has to attend a one-week compulsory practical program every two months at a specified center which will be allotted as near to the student’s residence as possible.

    F. It has, however, to be noted that all the regular students have to attend a minimum number of lectures and practical periods as per university rules. Those who join the distance education program have to send solved exercises which are forwarded to them with each despatch. A pass in such test is essential. The brochure containing rules and regulations is provided free of cost to each student. Each student has to adhere to them any violation shall attract a deduction in assessment marks. Every student joining any course of the university will have to produce not only an approval certificate from the parent or guardian but also a character certificate from a gazetted officer or from the head of the institution last attended.

    Reading Passage 3


    The world’s oldest form of resistance training

    A. From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the mighty armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern American high schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines or resistance bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.

    B. Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’ account of the Battle of Thermopylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle, the god-king Xerxes sent a scouting party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were practicing some kind of bizarre, synchronized movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had just 300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle, they managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form of calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength and endurance.

    C. The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline and strength but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for beauty and strength.  We know from historical records and images from pottery, mosaics, and sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics training seriously. They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their combination of athleticism and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This expression has travelled through centuries and continents, and the source of this envy and admiration is the calisthenics method.

    D. Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw the birth of gymnastics, an organized sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting horses, and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of astounding physical strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.

    E. In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas – was crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach stemmed from traditional calisthenics and through a series of mail-order comic books he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the method would ever succeed him.

    F. In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This became the sport of bodybuilding. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size. Bodybuilding icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva were called mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of this nature was only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones which boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These bodybuilders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to target and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally proportioned body. Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions, had little to offer the mass monsters.

    G. In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived to be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries, and school students. Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human beings ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was reduced to nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.

    H. In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use of calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques, and weak cardiovascular health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes emphasize calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training, gymnastics, and traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover the original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the mind-body connection.

    Questions 29–35

    The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraph contains the following information? Choose the correct letter for questions 29–35.

    29. the origin of the word ‘calisthenics’
    30. the last popular supporter of calisthenics
    31. the first use of calisthenics as a training method
    32. a multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength
    33. reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages
    34. the medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength
    35. a reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences

    Questions 36–40

    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than 36………………..or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this new sport of bodybuilding had a background in calisthenics but the most famous practitioners became known as 37………………..on account of the impressive size of their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles to a monstrous size.

    Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children, and those recovering from 38 ……………….. . Much of the advanced knowledge about calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress to 39……………….. . Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm the body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor 40 ……………….. .


    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 9 - Answers


    1. southerly
    2. art scene
    3. London
    4. Celtic
    5. Lanhydrock
    6. tin mine
    7. B
    8. A
    9. D
    10. C
    11. forewing // forewings
    12. antennae
    13. hindwing // hindwings
    14. pollen basket
    15. FALSE
    16. FALSE
    17. NOT GIVEN
    18. TRUE
    19. TRUE
    20. TRUE
    21. NOT GIVEN
    22. TRUE
    23. iii
    24. i
    25. vii
    26. iv
    27. ii
    28. v
    29. C
    30. E
    31. B
    32. H
    33. A
    34. F
    35. D
    36. functional strength
    37. mass monsters
    38. injuries
    39. weight training
    40. cardiovascular health

  • IELTS General Reading Test 8 – with Answers


    Read the information below and answer the questions 1-7

    ONLINE Tutors

    ONLINE tutors are excellent EFL/ESL teachers from around the world! They can be your private English tutor right on your computer! To send an email message to an Online tutor, just click on the name and write a short message to introduce yourself!

    A. Astrid Manyana (F 46) Chile

    Special offer for Spanish Speakers: bilingual teaching of English grammar and explanations in Spanish. 25 years’ experience teaching all levels from age 15 to 55. Basics, oral, written, specific interests[e.g.: tourism] and preparation for Cambridge and IELTS exams . I can make speaking English easy for you!

    B. John Bennet-Smith (M 27) CANADA

    I have been teaching English conversation as a volunteer in a language centre in my city for about one year I have been using e-mail , ICQ and Net Meeting to teach grammar , composition and conversation over the internet to about 20 or so students for about the same length of time. I am willing to teach free of charge privately or to groups , to teach those language skills which are of interest to a particular student classroom materials .

    C. Pamela Arrow smith (F 56) Australia

    I have thought English for over 30 years, and have developed a range of classroom material. I offer tutoring assistance in all areas of English, with an emphasis on business writing for EFL adults, either individuals or groups [maximum of four adults] and these can include English classes if desired.

    D. Jean-pierreJoyal(M 22)France

    I really like to create new kinds of teaching materials and I usually create my own activities instead of using the same kind of exercises and text we all are used to. Let’s try that in our classes – it will be fun! I have a BA and a certificate in teaching English as a secondary language and I have been teaching all levels of ESL students for more than 3 years .I offer a complimentary assessment of your skill level.

    E. Naoe  Nagayo (F 36) Japan

    I have thought English as a foreign language for 6 years. I have TEFL certificate from thew USA and a MA in applied Linguistic from the University of Birmingham, UK .My students range from pre-schoolers to adults. With my experience and knowledge, I can help you to target your learning difficulties and improve your English ability!


    Look at the description of online tutors (A-E). Write the appropriate letter A-E for each space.  Which tutorial would you choose…….?

    Example: – …….if your first language was Spanish?

    Answer: – A

    1.  …to teach young children?

    2.  …to improve English for your business?

    3.  ….if you didn’t have much money?

    4. …if you were bored with the usual language learning exercises?

    5. …to do exam preparation?

    Questions 6 and 7

    Choose two appropriate letters, A-E, for answers 6 and 7.
    Write two letters in boxes 6 and 7 on your answer sheet.

    Which two descriptions mentions…..

    6. …language teaching qualifications?

    7. ….more than 10 years’ teaching experience?

    Read the information about recycling and answer questions 8-14.


    No waste is a goal and a process that involves individuals, communities, business and all levels of government. It leads to future where trash is a thing of the past. Solid waste isn’t hidden or buried in landfills but fully utilised as the valuable resource that it is. Through redesign, reduction, reuse repair, recycling, composting and changes in the attitude, we aim to create opportunity and wealth instead of garbage.

    RECYCLING – Inside your blue box

    Every second week: Put garbage and recyclables out before 8 AM on collection day.

    Household Plastic containers
    Includes milk jugs, yogurt containers, detergent bottles. Excludes containers made of foam, plastic containers which held ammonia-based products, or metal bottle lids. Rinse to remove food or residue. Leave labels on, flatten or stack plastic containers to reduce space required.

    Glass containers
    Leave labels on Rinse. Discard caps.
    No other types of glass such as kitchenware, drinking glasses, window glass, light bulbs, mirrors or any broken glass.


    Food and beverage containers
    Cans – rinse and remove labels, flatten and fold together.
    Foil trays – rinse, flatten and fold together.
    No metal pots, take out container lids, cigarette wrappings.

    Beside your blue box


    Household paper – junk mail, envelopes, brochures, paper bags, egg cartons (fibre only); box packaging such as cereal, shoe boxes, paper towel cores, white and coloured office paper, telephone books.
    Remove liners, flatten packaging and place inside the bag.
    Mo drinking boxes, paper towels or waxed paper.


    Newspapers, inserts, sales flyers, magazines, and catalogs. Remove magazine covers, perfumed inserts. Ho books or soiled newspapers.

    Race clean textiles in a separate plastic shopping bag tied with string.

    Packing boxes, liquor boxes.
    Flatten bundles and tie – no larger than 30 x 30 x 8. Place beside the blue box. No waxed or coated boxes, soiled pizza boxes.

    QUESTIONS 8-10

    Choose ONE item only from the list below to go in each recycling container.

    8.  in the blue box

    9.  in the yellow bag

    10.  in the blue bag


    Telephone book

    ceramic cup

    old textbook

    Old clothing

    heavy cardboard

    aluminium drink

    wed pizza delivery box


    light bulb

    packing box

    Questions 11-14

    Look at the following statements.


    YES – if the answer is ‘yes’

    NO – if the answer is ‘no’

    NOT GIVEN – if there is no information about this in the passage

    11. Do I put out items for recycling every other week?

    12.  Should I remove labels from food cans?

    13.  Can I recycle a broken window?

    14.  Is there a separate collection for large household items?


    The text on the next page has seven sections, A – G.

    Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number, i – x, in boxes 15 – 21 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    i. How can reflection problems be avoided?

    ii. How long should I work without a break?

    iii. What if I experience any problems?

    iv. When is the best time to do filing chores?

    v. What makes a good seat?

    vi. What are the common health problems?

    vii. What is the best kind of lighting to have?

    viii. What are the roles of management and workers?

    ix. Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?

    X. Where should I place the documents?

    15. Section A

    16. Section B

    17. Section C

    18. Section D

    19. Section E

    20. Section F

    21. Section G

    Beneficial work Practices for the keyboard operator

    A. Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular fatigue, discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back, or eye strain which can be associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit (VDU).

    B. It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be able to recognise work-related health problems and be given the opportunity to participate in the management of these. Operators should take note of and follow the preventive measures outlined below.

    C. The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The back rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to avoid excessive perspiration

    D. When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it should be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient position can be found by using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary according to whether the operator spends more time looking at the VDU or the paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for the majority of time should be put directly in front of the operator.

    E. While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty to sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this spell it is important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This period could be profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents.

    F. Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this is not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or movable screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead lighting.

    G. Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or pain. Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

    Read the texts below and answer Questions 22 – 28

    Workplace Dismissals

    Before the dismissal

    If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed. Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through some preliminary steps

    Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the problem, outline any necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the situation. Then, if your employer does not think your performance has improved, you may be given a written warning. The last step is called a final written warning which will inform you that you will be dismissed unless there are improvements in performance. If there is no improvement, your employer can begin the dismissal procedure.

    The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the charges made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to discuss these accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he is given the opportunity to appear at a formal appeal hearing in front of a different manager. After this, a decision is made as to whether the employee will be let go or not.


    Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an employer wants an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and contractually strong and it means all the necessary procedures have been correctly followed. In cases where an employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however, an employer may not have to follow all of these procedures. If the employer can prove that the employee’s behaviour was illegal, dangerous or severely wrong. The employee can be dismissed immediately a procedure known as summary dismissal.

    Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of these types is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer. This could involve dismissing an employee without notice or without following proper disciplinary and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when an employee is sacked without good cause.

    There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is slightly peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the employer. In this case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries to make significant changes to the original contract. This could mean an employee might have to work night shifts after originally signing on for day work, or he could be made to work in dangerous conditions.

    Questions 22 – 23

    Complete the text below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the spaces given for questions 22 – 23.

    22. If an employee receives a……………., this means he will lose his job if his work does not get better.

    23. If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a…………………….can be arranged.

    Questions 24 – 28

    Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24 – 28) and the list of terms in the box below. Match each description with the correct term A – E.

    Write the appropriate letter A – E in the given spaces for questions 24 – 28.

    24. An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something really bad………………….

    25. An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are very different from those agreed to in the beginning………………………..

    26. An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the contract…………………..

    27. The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough………………….

    28. The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of the employment contract………………………

    A. Fair dismissal

    B. Summary dismissal

    C. Unfair dismissal

    D. Wrongful dismissal

    E. Constructive dismissal


     Read the text below and answer Questions 29-35.

    Working at One of the World’s Best Restaurants

    Catch-up with our intrepid Food Traveller as he spans the globe looking for the best restaurant kitchens

    A. They say only a fool makes the same mistake twice. Well, consider me a fool. Five months ago, towards the start of my foodish adventure, I thought it wise to stay up eating and drinking wine with some chefs following my stint at Parsley Restaurant, in Stockholm, Sweden. The result? A missed flight to Los Angeles and a hefty chunk was taken from the ‘naughty fund’, which is some money I set aside before my travels for such eventualities.

    B. So why then, after completing my 26th restaurant job at Torreo, in Paraguay, did I think it wise to attend the opening of the sous chef’s bar, The Garden, the night before my 6:30 a.m. flight to Buenos Aires? You can guess probably what happened next. With the ‘naughty fund’ now well and truly depleted, I found myself trying to charm the airline sales team to transfer my ticket to a later flight. I’m not sure how I managed it, but to my great surprise, they did so at no extra cost. The only downside: I had to wait four hours before I could check-in.

    C. I. subsequently, did what every normal tired, slightly hungover chap would do: wrapped a towel around my head, found the nearest corner, and tried to sleep on the marble floor. I’m sure this would have worked out beautifully if it wasn’t for the fact I was a great source of amusement for everyone in the departures terminal. Every few minutes I was woken by the sound of an iPhone camera snapping away at the towel-headed gringo’. If I ever appear on one of those’ BuzzFeed lists, I will only have myself to blame.

    D. But enough foolish boy and back to Foodish Boy. This whole situation arose after finishing a fantastic week inside one of Paraguay’s best restaurants, Torreo, currently ranked 26 in Latin America’s Top 50 restaurants by one British survey and 23 in an American publication. Their food, like many top restaurants in South America, employs heavy use of French techniques with a good helping of European influence. Despite this, head chef Marisol Binelli, one of the few females on the Top 50 list, maintains a distinct identity of Paraguay, with original dishes that highlight the best Paraguayan produce from across the country. Binelli spares no expense in traveling the country meeting producers and tasting the landscapes of her vast and varied homeland. She even presents all diners with a map to illustrate where she sources each of her ingredients.

    E. The prawn course, for example, originates from the Puerto Padre, the algae from Tierra del Hielo, and the peanuts from Cordova. In addition, seasonality heavily shapes the menu. I was fortunate enough to experience a menu change midway through my time at Torreo. The days before this, the kitchen had been a calm and relaxed environment with the chefs pausing between orders to teach me about their dishes. Then came Thursday and the new menu. The chefs and staff had just one afternoon to learn the new dishes and prepare for the evening dinner rush. The laughs and smiles stopped for a bit, as each chef became highly focused. I, in contrast, glowed with delight, as the new menu meant one thing: more tasters!

    F. Like most of my restaurant experiences, I worked mainly in the pastry section. I think this happens, for I can do a limited amount of damage in this area, both to myself and the others around me. But I sometimes wonder if my personality encourages chefs to instruct me to play around with pretty sugary things. In contrast to myself, the blokes running the grill section wouldn’t look out-of-place on the Puma’s front row.

    G. Working in the pastry section, however, gave me the privilege of working alongside one of the best pastry chefs I’ve met to date, Miranda. She is so talented that she even has a dish named after her on the menu, featuring an absolutely delicious sweet potato jam ice cream. But the real star of the show was her textures of lemon and lime – perhaps the tastiest dessert of my trip so far.

    H. At the end of my week in the Torreo kitchen, I leaped out of the kitchen a rather jubilant man. This may well have been in part due to the copious amounts of sugar ingested from eating a bunch of Miranda’s desserts, though I believe it was more the realization that I had completed my 26th job and was now officially halfway through my project. I was in the mood to celebrate. Did someone mention a wine bar opening?

    Questions 29-35

    The text has eight paragraphs, A-H. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 29-35 on your answer sheet.

    29. Explores the writer’s experience in preparing desserts.

    30. References how the head chef finds the ingredients for her restaurant’s dishes.

    31. Introduces the idea how the writer manages his financial resources.

    32. Mentions how the time of year influences the restaurant’s offerings.

    33. Infers how the writer made the same mistake twice in managing his time.

    34. Describes how the blogger spent his time waiting for his flight at the airport.

    35. Suggests how the blogger’s disposition shapes where he works in a restaurant.

    Questions 36-40

    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    The food writer spans the globe as part of a culinary 36……………….to find the best restaurants in the world. He has traveled throughout six continents looking for the best of the best. His decadent experience in the capital city of Sweden, Stockholm, had, as a result, a(n) 37……………. to the United States.

    The blogger’s personality leads him to often work in 38……………….section of most restaurants. In the establishment in Paraguay, the chef there was so talented that she had a dish 39……………………..her on the menu. The writer also admired the focus and discipline of the chefs in preparing food, despite constant menu changes. The sweet 40………………..jam ice cream was one of his favorite desserts.

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 8 - Answers


    1. E

    2. C

    3. B

    4. D

    5. A

    6. D, E (in either order, both required for 1 mark)

    7. A, C (in either order, both required for 1 mark)

    8. aluminum drink can

    9. telephone book

    10. magazines

    11. YES

    12. YES

    13. NO

    14. NOT GIVEN

    15. vi

    16. vii

    17. v

    18. x

    19. ii

    20. i

    21. iii

    22. final written warning

    23. formal appeal hearing

    24. B

    25. E

    26. D

    27. C

    28. A

    29. G

    30. D

    31. A

    32. E

    33. B

    34. C

    35. F

    36. adventure

    37. missed flight

    38. the pastry

    39. named after

    40. potato

  • IELTS General Reading Test 7 – with Answers


    Read the text below and answer Questions 1-14.



    On June 14th a competition will take place in the New Malden Town Hall for all up-and-coming bands that want to take part.

    – Call Karen on 555 4318 if you want to enter your band in the competition.

    – Entry into the competition costs £5 but there is a £100 prize for the winner.

    – Bands will be playing their own music to attendees of the festival.


    A concert will be held every night of the international festival week with music ranging from classical music to rock and pop. Orchestras and bands will perform during the week from countries such as Spain, Italy, France and even Morocco, India, and South America.



    Festival Week Programme

    Friday, June 12th – Come and have a browse through the ‘music market’ which will have CDs and old records from all genres, from classical music to pop and house music.

    Saturday, June 13th – Come and see Burlington Primary School perform their renditions of some of the hit songs from ‘Grease’. The performance promises to be electrifying!

    Sunday, June 14th – Music workshops will be taking place in the Town Hall before the band competition starts. Come along and play some different musical instruments. The workshops will be finished off with a Karaoke session!

    Monday, June 15th – Italian and Spanish Day. Some well-known music artists from Italy and Spain will come to perform from 5 pm to 11 pm. Singing and dancing will take place and the audience can participate.

    Tuesday, June 16th – A closing gala will take place with all different acts taking part. There will be food and drink available.

    Questions 1-6

    Read the information in the texts on the previous page and complete the summary using the words listed from A-P below. Write your answers in spaces 1-6.

    The Malden Music Festival will include performances of all different music types and will have people of different ages participating. Children from Burlington Primary School will entertain the audience with 1 ………………. of different songs from the musical ‘Grease’. Daily evening concerts will feature music from diverse countries such as Spain, Italy, 2……………….., Morocco and India. One of the most exciting parts of the festival is on June 14and it is the 3……………………between the bands.

    There will also be a day when you can purchase any kind of music you want at the 4…………………….. If you are looking to find some interesting things that once belonged to celebrated musicians go to the 5………………….held at the weekend. The festival will culminate in an entertaining 6…………………. with different artists performing. It’s an event not to be missed!

    A. instruments

    B. food

    C. competition

    D. rock

    E. workshops

    F. France

    G. South America

    H. auction

    I. bands

    J. genres

    K. renditions

    L. audience

    M. countries

    N. gala

    O. paraphernalia

    P. music market

    Questions 7-10

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the texts? In spaces 7-10, write

    TRUE – if the statement agrees with the information

    FALSE – if the statement contradicts the information

    NOT GIVEN – if there is no information on this

    7. Those assembled for the evening’s entertainment can join in with the singing and dancing during the event on Monday June 15″.

    8. The band competition and the workshops will run simultaneously.

    9. Throughout the week, there will be a music concert every day.

    10. Food and drink served during the gala will not be complimentary.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 11-14.

    Survey about Pets

    Aims of the survey

    The aim of the survey was to find out which animals people most like to keep as pets and how many in every one hundred people have a pet. The survey also aimed to find out people’s opinion about the positive and negative aspects of having a pet in the house.

    Results of the survey

    The survey showed that fifty in every hundred people have a dog and sixty have a cat. The number was lower for animals such as fish or rabbits, with only twenty five people in one hundred owning fish and twenty owning a rabbit.

    Positive aspects of having a pet

    People claimed that owning a pet, such as a dog or a cat, can be extremely beneficial as they have a therapeutic effect on people. People are able to form bonds with living things other than humans and they are also given a sense of responsibility when having to care for the animals, which has a positive effect. Children can be taught that animals are very important and they must be looked after with care.

    Negative aspects of having a pet

    When asked, people stated that pets can be extremely expensive and can be too difficult to look after. When going on holiday it is always a problem to find reliable people to look after pets, such as cats and dogs, and it is expensive to leave animals in a ‘pet home’ whilst on holiday. People also feel that leaving animals in a home-like this is unfair on the animals.

    Questions 11-14

    Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in spaces 11-14.

    11. What pet constitutes the minority choice amongst pet owners in this survey?

    12. What can pet keeping achieve?

    13. What quality does pet-owning impart to pet owners?

    14. Leaving aside the effect on the pet itself, why is it difficult to leave pets in a ‘pet home?


    Read the text below and answer Questions 15-25.


    A…………………………The word Kangaroo has come to mean any member of the family of kangaroos and wallabies. The belief that it means “I don’t understand” or “I don’t know” is a popular myth that is also applied to many other Aboriginal-sounding Australian words. Male kangaroos are called bucks, boomers or jacks; females are does, flyers, or jills and the young ones are joeys. The collective noun for kangaroos is a mob, troop or court.

    B…………………………..Kangaroos have been regarded as strange animals for many years. Some explorers have described them as creatures with similar heads to deer but without antlers, animals that stood upright like men and hopped like frogs. The hind legs of kangaroos are large and powerful and they have large feet adapted for leaping, a long muscular tail for balance, and a small head. Like all marsupials, kangaroos have a pouch in which their young develop and grow after birth.

    С……………………………Kangaroos are herbivores; they feed on grass and roots and chew the cud. All species are nocturnal and during the day they usually relax quietly whilst during the cool evenings, nights, and mornings they move about and feed usually in groups.

    D………………………….Dingoes and other species like foxes and feral cats pose a threat to the kangaroo population, as they do to most populations of native animals. Like wallabies, kangaroos are able swimmers and enjoy immersing themselves in water if presented with the option. If pursued into the water, a large kangaroo may use its forepaws to hold the predator underwater to drown it. Another defensive tactic described by witnesses is catching the predator with the forepaws and killing it with the hind legs.

    E………………………….A dominant male in a group of kangaroos is called a boomer. This is based on his size and age. A boomer has temporary exclusive access to females for mating. A boomer may find himself wandering in and out of the group of kangaroos – checking out the females and intimidating the other males who try to mate with the females.

    F…………………………..Kangaroos have developed in a number of ways to survive in a dry, infertile continent and a highly variable climate. As with all marsupials, the young are born at a very early stage of development after a gestation of 31-36 days. At this stage, only the forelimbs are somewhat developed, to allow the newborn to climb to the pouch and attach to a teat. A human embryo at a similar stage of development would be about 7 weeks old and premature babies born at less than 23 weeks are usually not mature enough to survive. The joey (baby kangaroo) will usually stay in the pouch for about 9 months or (for the Western Grey) 180 to 320 days before starting to leave the pouch for small periods of time. It is usually fed by its mother until the age of 18 months.

    G………………………..Before the whites came to Australia, the kangaroo was a very important animal for Australian Aborigines, both for its meat, its hide, its bones, and its sinews. There were also important dreaming stories and ceremonies involving the kangaroo. Aherrenge is a current kangaroo dreaming site in the Northern Territory. The game of Marn grook was played using a ball made from a kangaroo by the Kurnai people.

    Questions 15-21

    This reading text has seven sections, A-G. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-x, in spaces 15-21.

    List of Headings

    i. Territory

    ii. Kangaroos and humans

    ii. Adaptations

    iv. Diet

    v. Predators

    vi. Courtship

    vii. Physical description

    viii. Upbringing

    ix. Movement

    x. Terminology

    15. Section A ………………………

    16. Section B ………………………

    17. Section C ………………………

    18. Section D ………………………

    19. Section E ………………………

    20. Section F ………………………

    21. Section G ………………………

    Questions 22 and 23

    Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in spaces 22 and 23.

    22. A…………… describe kangaroos can be either mob, troop or court.

    23. A boomer is the……………… a group of Kangaroos.

    Questions 24 and 25

    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-D, from the box below.

    Write the appropriate letter, A-D, in spaces 24 and 25.

    24. Dingoes and other species……………..

    25. Young kangaroos are born………………..

    A. at a rudimentary stage of growth.

    B. without their forelimbs.

    C. prey on kangaroos.

    D. feed on grass and roots.

    Questions 26-28

    Read the text below and answer Questions 26-28.


    A. The drum is a member of the percussion group of musical instruments, technically classified as a membranophone. Drums consist of at least one membrane, called a drum head or drum skin, that is stretched over a shell and struck, either directly with parts of a player’s body, or with some sort of implement such as a drumstick, to produce sound. Other techniques have been used to cause drums to make sound, such as the Thumb roll’.

    B. Drums are the world’s oldest and most ubiquitous musical instruments and the basic design has remained virtually unchanged for thousands of years. Most drums are considered ‘untuned instruments’, however many modern musicians are beginning to tune drums to songs. A few, such as timpani are always tuned to a certain pitch. Often, several drums are arranged together to create a drum kit that can be played by one musician with all four limbs.

    C. Several factors determine the sound a drum produces, including the type, shape and construction of the drum shell, the type of drum heads it has and the tension of these drum heads. Different drum sounds have different uses in music. A jazz drummer may want drums that sound crisp, clean and a little on the soft side, whereas a rock and roll drummer may prefer drums that sound loud and deep. Since these drummers want different sounds, their drums will be constructed a little differently.

    D. Drums are usually played by the hands or by one or two sticks. In many traditional cultures, drums have a symbolic function and are often used in religious ceremonies. Drums are often used in music therapy, especially hand drums, because of their tactile nature and easy use by a wide variety of people. Within the realm of popular music and jazz, ‘drums’ usually refers to a drum kit or a set of drums (with some cymbals) and drummer’ to the actual band member or person who plays them.

    Questions 26-28

    The text has four paragraphs, A-D. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    Write the correct letter, A-D, in spaces 26-30. You may use any letter more than once.

    26. The design of the drum has seen little modification over the centuries.

    27. Drums are frequently employed as an aid in music therapy.

    28. To play the drum kit you can use your hands and feet at the same time.

    Reading passage – 3

    Read the text below and answer Questions 29-35.

    The Evolution of Long-Distance Communication

    A. Long-distance signaling was used as far back as the time of ancient civilizations in China, Egypt, and Greece. Primitive as the methods may sound today. Signaling took the form of messages communicated through smoke or drumbeats. Bad weather, however, would have often interrupted the line of sight between receptor points, making such signaling methods ineffective.

    B. Even centuries later, the more sophisticated long-distance signaling method known as semaphore, proved susceptible to weather and other factors stopping visibility. Developed in the early 1790s, the semaphore consisted of a series of hilltop stations that each had large movable arms to signal letters and numbers and two telescopes with which to see the other stations. However, during bad weather, signaling would prove impossible. Clearly, a different method of transmitting information was required to make regular and reliable long-distance communication workable.

    C. The beginning of the nineteenth century was to herald the invention of two major technological advances that would lay the groundwork for more effective long-distance communication. In 1800, Italian scientist Alessandro Volta invented the battery and in 1820 Dutch physicist Hans Christian Oersted demonstrated the connection between electricity and magnetism. Volta’s invention permitted electric currents to be stored and later used under controlled conditions, whilst Oersted’s discovery showed how a magnetic needle could be deflected by electric currents.

    D. In the mid-nineteenth century Volta’s invention and Oersted’s discovery were brought together to create a major communications breakthrough: the telegraph. In its early stages, the telegraph system comprised five magnetic needles that could be pointed around a panel of letters and numbers by using an electric current.

    E. Later, Samuel Morse, in scientific collaboration with a group of other inventors, would take the invention a stage further. Building on the telegraph system, Morse and his associates created a device capable of transmitting electrical impulses over a wire between stations. Morse then created a code of dots and dashes, relating to each letter of the English alphabet. The transcription of electrical impulses into letters was thereby created, permitting complex messages to be sent across telegraph lines and thereby allowing long-distance communication with a device known as the telegraph.

    F. In 1844, Morse sent his first telegraph message from Washington DC to Baltimore, Maryland. A deeply religious man, he ensured that the wording delivered a suitable message: ‘What God hath wrought!’ Just over two decades later, in 1866, the first telegraph line had been laid across the Atlantic from the US to Europe.

    F. The electric telegraph transformed how wars were fought and won and how journalists and newspapers did business. Rather than taking weeks to be delivered by horse-and-carriage mail carts, pieces of news could be exchanged between telegraph stations almost instantly. The telegraph also had a big economic effect, allowing money to be ‘wired’ across great distances.

    G. With the beginning of the 20th century, the telegraph had become almost obsolete, replaced by faster and more effective means of communication such as the telephone, the fax machine, and, more recently, the internet. These inventions though would not have been possible without the telegraph first paving the way for such technological breakthroughs. Morse is still remembered in the code that bears his name, and the world-famous emergency S.O.S code that is based on the Morse code.

    Questions 29-35

    The text has eight paragraphs, A-H. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 29-35 on your answer sheet.

    29. The practical impact of technology ………………………………

    30. An old problem comes back ………………………………..

    31. Recognition of a higher authority …………………………………

    32. Communication is scripted ……………………………

    33. Remember forever………………………….

    34. Certain practices are now seen basic ………………………………

    35. Dual achievements …………………………………

    Questions 36-40

    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    Smoke-signalling and drum beating was used by 36………………………as primitive forms of long-distance communication. However such communication methods in addition to the much later and more sophisticated semaphore signaling system were at the mercy of the 37……………………….. . A need for a more effective long-distance communication system was obvious.

    The nineteenth century was witness to a couple of 38………………………which would introduce a revolutionary form of long-distance communication: the telegraph. In its initial stages, the telegraph system was not capable of long-distance communication until its development by Samuel Morse and his associate. Morse is also to be credited with the development of 39……………………..that transcribed electrical impulses into letters. The resulting invention was known as the telegraph and it soon became an intrinsic part of everyday life. Later, in the 20th century, more effective means of long-distance communication, such as the internet, phone, and fax made the telegraph 40………………………… .

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below

    IELTS Reading practice 7 - Answers


    1. K

    2. F

    3. C

    4. P

    5. H

    6. N

    7. TRUE

    8. FALSE

    9. TRUE

    10. NOT GIVEN

    11. (a) rabbit

    12. a therapeutic effect

    13. responsibility

    14. it is expensive

    15. x

    16. vii

    17. iv

    18. v

    19. vi

    20. iii

    21. ii

    22. collective noun

    23. dominant male

    24. C

    25. A

    26. B

    27. D

    28. B

    29. G

    30. B

    31. F

    32. E

    33. H

    34. A

    35. C

    36. Ancient civilization

    37. Weather

    38. Major technological advances

    39. A code

    40. Almost obsolete

  • IELTS General Reading Test 6 – with Answers

    Reading Passage 1

    Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

    Recipe for a Delicious Apple and Honey Cake


    – 100g castor sugar

    – 3 large eggs

    – 70g honey

    – 300g self-raising flour

    – 80g butter

    – 1 tsp cinnamon

    – 3-4 dessert apples: peeled, cored, and diced into small cubes

    Honey apple sauce

    – 1 cup honey

    – 1 cup apple juice or cider

    Pour honey and apple juice or cider into a saucepan and bring to a boil. Stir the sauce constantly until the mixture thickens to the required consistency. Spoon warm sauce over the top and sides of honey and apple cake and serve immediately.

    This moist honey and apple cake is a delicious dessert alternative for any dinner party or holiday gathering and it’s sure to become a well-loved family favorite.


    – Heat oven to 180C/ 350F/ Gas mark 4 and grease a 20 cm cake tin.

    – Add sugar, honey, and eggs to the mixing bowl and whisk with an electric mixer for around ten minutes, until the mixture is pale and fluffy in texture.

    – Cut softened butter into small squares and beat into mixture.

    – Sieve the flour and add to mixture into greased cake tin and place in a hot oven for around 45 minutes. Check the cake after 25 minutes. If the top has browned sufficiently cover with foil to ensure it does not burn.

    – Test cake with a skewer before removing from the oven – there should be no uncooked mixture in the middle of the cake.

    – Drizzle honey over the top of cake and dust with sifted icing sugar.

    – Serve with cream or thick honey and apple sauce or ice cream.

    Questions 1-8

    Complete the sentence below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    1. The dessert is great for family functions and any…………………………..parties.

    2. Once you place the cake mixture in the oven, make sure in no less than………………………..the top has reached the required color.

    3. In order to make a cake, you’ll need three……………………………. .

    4. The apples should be diced………………………….before they are added to the mix.

    5. One should pour the………………………………..into the tin and then insert it into the oven.

    6. The dish should be served to guests with cream or thick………………………….sauce.

    7. To create the honey apple sauce use one cup………………………..or cider.

    8. Use a spoon to cover the dessert with the…………………………over the top and sides.

    Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

    The Law of Karma

    Fifty years ago, if you knew whether someone was a liberal or a conservative politically, you didn’t necessarily know a lot about the person’s moral values; party affiliation told you even less about someone’s preferences in restaurants or movies. There was so much diversity within each party that stereotyping was harder and cross-party alliances were much easier.

    Nowadays you can make predictions about people’s values and votes from just a few seemingly unrelated things, such as whether they find exotic cuisines appealing or how messy their desks are. A research institute has surveyed more than five hundred thousand about their personality traits and moral values. They found very consistent differences between political beliefs in a few values.

    For example, how strongly do you agree or disagree with these two statements:

    1) “Compassion is the most important virtue.”

    2) “The world would be a better place if we let unsuccessful people fail and suffer the consequences.”

    The liberals in the sample strongly identify with the compassion statement and strongly reject the failure statement. In contrast, those with conservative political beliefs endorse both statements mildly are equally.

    What’s going on here? A useful way to think about these differences, especially when discussing viewpoints on economic policies, is that it’s a battle between the law of karma and the principle of compassion. Conservatives generally want to live in a world governed by karma, the ancient Hindu idea that people reap the fruits of their actions, both good and bad.

    Karma was usually thought of as a law of the universe, like the law of gravity. Part of the reason conservatives have historically opposed the growth of the welfare state is the belief that it grants people a sort of karmic exemption, allowing those who are lazy or irresponsible to draw resources from those who are more hardworking. Conservatives agree that the world would be a better place if we “let unsuccessful people fail” whether it be an individual, company or even a country.

    Liberals, by contrast, would prefer to live in a world governed by compassion. They are more likely to give people second and third chances. For example, they are more likely to endorse this statement: “It is generally better to show mercy than to take revenge.” Karma and compassion are both necessary pillars of a well-functioning society. Conservatives are right that a world in which the law of Karma applies tends to work better than one in which it doesn’t. Results from studies in experimental behavior illustrate that cooperation rates skyrocket when cheaters expect to be punished.

    However, the law of Karma is not real. In free-market societies, hard work does pay off much better than laziness yet cancer, unemployment, and other forms of bad luck can strike anyone. And cheaters, exploiters, and law-breakers do often proposer. If we want to live in a truly just world, in which honest work is rewarded, cheaters are punished and people can bounce back from misfortune and mistakes, we’ll have to engineer it ourselves. Karma and compassion don’t balance themselves; that’s a job we must do.

    Questions 9-14

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    9. Surprisingly, you can predict someone’s political viewpoints by

    A. Interviewing a person at length about their voting history.

    B. Looking at how his or her parents voted along party lines.

    C. Drawing conclusions based on their moral attitudes.

    D. Determining whether they are immigrants in their country.

    10. The number of people who participated in the research study was

    A. More than 500.

    B. Almost half a million.

    C. Give or take 5,000.

    D. In excess of 500,000.

    11. The study shows that those with conservative political beliefs think

    A. People should receive success based on their efforts

    B. People should be less forgiving towards

    C. That karma is insignificant in their attitude towards life.

    D. That giving to the poor is a great idea.

    12. Those with liberal political viewpoints have

    A. Placed a premium on the role of karma.

    B. Valued empathy and forgiveness in shaping their thinking.

    C. The belief that those who experience failure deserve it.

    D. Little use for kindness and karma in their political worldview.

    13. According to the text, the law of karma

    A. Fails to look at the power of larger economic or social forces.

    B. Gives too much credit to political parties in deciding elections.

    C. Determine if a country succeeds or fails financially.

    D. Plays a larger role in who becomes the leader of a country.

    14. Choose the most suitable title for the text from the list below.

    A. Karma’s influence on Political Elections

    B. What Determines a Winner and a Loser

    C. Why your Values Are Important

    D. The Economics of Karma

    Reading Passage 2

    A. Far East Business Holidays Ltd

    Winter Getaway Special

    Samui Delight – The Dream Island 3 days 2 nights. Cost” 7,500 Baht

    Puket – Pearl of Andaman 3 days 2 nights. Cost: 6,500 Baht

    Koh Chang – 4 days 3 nights. Cost: 8,500

    Web Address:

    Email Address: [email protected]

    B. KCTC Tour Company

    We are operating tour packages all over South Africa, offering tourists direct access to Houseboat Cruises Back Waters, Ayurvedic Spas, Adventure Tours, and Beautiful Beaches.

    We have developed a special service for business travelers looking to entertain clients and/or host conferences.

    Email Address: [email protected]

    C. Domestic & International Travel Services

    Tour organizations, air ticketing, railway tickets, passport and visa consulting and hotel reservations. Contact us also for coordinating package tours and business conventions. Our Facebook friends have access to a special discount for their first purchase. Unfortunately, we don’t offer services for business clientele.

    D. Travel Shop

    Introducing Exotic and Vibrant Destination of Rajasthan and the neighbor states of India. We are an affiliated tour company of South Asia Airways and India Airways.

    We offer exciting packages that give you an unforgettable travel experience!

    Address: 2719, Bangalore Street, New Delhi, India.


    Email Address: [email protected]

    E. Africa Travels

    Africa Travels is a wildlife safari travel company providing adventure travels to four African countries – South Africa, Kenya, Tanzania, and Zambia. Journey across open savannah, watch the Great Migration and experience the thrill of seeing the big game animals up close. Meet the locals and experience the warmth and hospitality of Africa’s people.

    Address: 9 Anson Street, 13-11 International Plaza.

    Email Address: [email protected] 

    Questions 15-21

    Look at the five advertisements, A-E.

    Which advertisement mentions the following?

    Write the correct letter, A-E, in spaces 15-21. You may use any letter more than once.

    15. helps customers with company conventions to manage in South Africa

    16. has a seasonal offer for customers

    17. features special partnerships with large airlines

    18. presents the opportunity to see large animals like lions

    19. allows customers to take advantage of a price discount through social media

    20. provides the opportunity to meet native people on their tours

    21. offers prices in a foreign currency

    15. ……………………………….

    16. ……………………………….

    17. ……………………………….

    18. ……………………………….

    19. ……………………………….

    20. ……………………………….

    21. ……………………………….

    Read the text below and answer Questions 22-28.

    IT Tips

    Below is a basic outline of what services the IT department offers at the company. Don’t hesitate to contact us to see if we can help you with other technology related matters.

    We are available by e-mail at [email protected] or ext 99.

    Log-In and Email

    User accounts for clients and staff to access IT facilitates. Register an account or change your password including challenge questions. Request a resource account to reset passwords. Get insight on reducing the amount of spam you receive. Managers are responsible for requesting network access and e-mail accounts for all new employees.

    Computers and Software

    Get help with the computer that sits on your desk or travels with you, including file storage, setting it up, buying a new computer, and disposal. You can also report a faulty computer and borrow a laptop while yours is broken. Download software, view programs on managed desktops and software available for Macs.

    Printing, Network, and Wi-Fi

    Buy print credit. Request a service from the printing team including access to network printers or advice on which printer to select. Get a network port activated and learn where Wi-Fi hotspots exist. IT troubleshooters any wireless or printing issues for the company. Please contact the department in advance for any mass print jobs to prevent any machine malfunctions.

    IT Training and Web Publishing

    Browse the course catalog to select a business seminar, check availability, and book one. The catalog provides a brief biography of each presenter. You can also request one-on-one training at your desk before work, during your lunch, or after work. Also, request a new SiteBuilder website to create and/or for company use.

    Audio Visual

    View shared rooms and their accompanying AV equipment or report malfunctioning items. Staff and research postgraduate students can get help with filming, multimedia applications, and recording TV or radio programs. You may also compare options for telephone, video, and desktop conferencing. IT also has a range of contacts for use for more sophisticated AV needs, in terms of including professional recording, broadcasting and digital video facilitates.

    Questions 22 and 23

    Complete the sentence below. Chose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in spaces 22 and 23.

    22. The IT department can help you with computers that lie………………………………or with portable ones.

    23. You should know where…………………..are located in the office building to be able to connect to the Internet.

    Questions 24-28

    Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24-28) and the list of terms in the box below.

    Match description with the correct term, A-E.

    Write the appropriate letter, A-E, in spaces 24-28.


    24. An employee needs to book a room with camera equipment for a presentation.

    25. A junior manager needs help with creating a site for a client on the internet.

    26. A worker needs assistance in finding applications for his laptop.

    27. A supervisor is unsure of where he can connect wirelessly to the firm’s servers.

    28. The accounting department has a new employee who needs access to send messages to colleagues.

    A. Log-in and Email

    B. Audio Visual

    C. Computers and Software

    D. Printing, Networking and Wi-Fi

    E. IT Training and Web Training







    Reading Passage 3

    Read the text below and answer the questions 29-40

    NASA Studies an Unusual Arctic Warming Event

    Winter temperatures are soaring in the Arctic for the fourth winter in a row. The heat, accompanied by moist air, is entering the Arctic not only through the sector of the North Atlantic Ocean that lies between Greenland and Europe, as it has done in previous years, but is also coming from the North Pacific through the Bering Strait.

    We have seen winter warming events before, but they’re becoming more frequent and more intense, said Alek Petty, sea ice researcher at NASA’s Goddard Space Flight Center in Greenbelt, Maryland.

    Scientists are waiting to see how much this heatwave will impact the wintertime sea ice extent, which has been shrinking in the past decades and has hit record lows each of the past 3 years. The sea ice levels are already at record lows or near-record lows in several areas of the Arctic. Another exceptional event this winter is the opening up of the sea ice more vulnerable to further melting.

    ‘This is a region where we have the thickest multi-year sea ice and expect it to not be mobile, to be resilient, Petty said. ‘But now this ice is moving pretty quickly, pushed by strong southerly winds and probably affected by the warm temperature, too.

    Questions 29-33

    Choose the right answer from the alternatives given below.

    A. North Atlantic Ocean

    B. North Pacific

    C. sea ice

    D. Southerly winds

    29. Temperatures are rising in the winter in the Arctic

    A. every winter

    B. 4 winter in a row

    C. on the fourth winter

    30. Winter warming events are becoming

    A. lesser and more severe

    B. occasional and very severe

    C. more often and more severe

    31. Impact of heatwave on wintertime sea ice has hit a record low

    A. every 3 years

    B. for the last 3 years

    C. lasting for 3 years

    32. Sea ice melting further because

    A. it is already at a record low

    B. of heat from the ocean

    C. of the opening of the sea ice cover

    33. In the Arctic, sea ice is mobile and not resilient because

    A. of strong winds and warm temperature

    B. of the thicker multi-year sea ice

    C. heat and moist air is entering the Arctic

    Questions 34-40

    Complete the flowchart below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answer in boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet.


    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below


    IELTS Reading practice 6 - Answers


    1. dinner

    2. 25 minutes

    3. large eggs

    4. into small cubes

    5. cake mixture

    6. honey and apple

    7. of apple juice

    8. warm sauce

    9. C

    10. D

    11. A

    12. B

    13. A

    14. C

    15. B

    16. A

    17. D

    18. E

    19. C

    20. E

    21. A

    22. on your desk

    23. Wi-Fi hotspots

    24. B

    25. E

    26. C

    27. D

    28. A

    29. B

    30. C

    31. B

    32. C

    33. A

    34. warming

    35. moist

    36. the Bering Strait

    37. extent

    38. Greenland

    39. vulnerable

    40. atmosphere


  • IELTS General Reading Test 5 – Best Test with Answers

    Reading Passage 1          

    Question 1 to 14

     Read the text below and answer question 1 to 7

    Otzi the Iceman

    Found in 1991 in the Otzi Alps this well-preserved mummy of a man has been affectionately nicknamed Otzi the Iceman. He is Europe’s oldest natural human mummy and has been estimated to have lived around 3,300 BC.

    When first found people thought this was the body of a recently deceased climber. It was only when Otzi was taken to the University of Innsbruck that it was fairly quickly determined that this was an ancient mummy.

    It was finally determined that Otzi was about 45 years old when he died, weighed 50kg, and was 1.65 meters tall. It was even possible to tell which village he has lived in by the type of pollen and dust grains found on his body.

    His diet from several months before he died was determined by hair analysis and shown to be a mixture of different meats, wheat bread, root vegetables, fruits, and other grains. Otzi’s death most likely happened in the spring because of the presence of very fresh pollen that is only seen at this time of year.

    High levels of copper and arsenic were also found in his hair suggesting that he might have been involved in making bronze (a mixture of copper, arsenic, and/ or tin). The copper axe found by his side was probably made by him.

    Lines on one of the two fingernails found indicate that he had been ill three times in the last six months.

    Otzi had several tattoos on his body including a cross behind his right knee and various marks around both ankles. These might have been for decoration but it is thought that they are connected to pain relief treatments similar to acupuncture and acupressure.

    He wore a cloak made of woven grass and a coat, a belt, a pair of leggings, a loincloth, and shoes, all made of leather of different skins. This was seen as very sophisticated for the time and suggests that Otzi was a chief of his tribe. The shoes were waterproof and designed for walking across the snow. They were constructed using bearskin for the soles, deer hide for the top panels, and netting made of tree bark.

    Question 1 to 7

    Complete the summary below:

    Chose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer:

    Write your answers in boxes 1 – 7 on your answer sheet.

    Originally thought to be a climber that had 1………………………. not long ago, Otzi was then found to be an ancient mummy that had lived over 5,000 years ago. Scientists determined the location he had lived in because his body had a certain type of 2……………………. on it. Through 3……………………. we now know that he regularly ate a mixture of different foods including wheat, bread, and root vegetables. The season he died in was also worked out by the presence of 4…………………………….. .

    Otzi was not in the best of health and had infect been ill 5………………………. not so long ago as shown by marks on his nails. Different tattoos on his body might have been used for 6………………………. He was a very dressed man with the type of clothes that suggested he was a tribal.


    Charles Macintosh

    It is difficult to imagine in today’s world of high technology but in the 19th century, it was impossible to find a waterproof coat. Whenever it rained you were sure to get wet from head to toe. This was all to change with a little help from Charles Macintosh a Scottish chemist and inventor.

    Born in 1766, he was expected to spend his life working for his father in the family business dyeing wool and silk. Charles and other ideas, after leaving school, he studied chemistry at a university in Glasgow and after graduating was employed as a clerk with a merchant.

    This was only a stepping-stone as Charles never gave up his love of science, particularly chemistry, and spent all of his free time studying. By the time he was twenty Charles had given up his job and had opened up his own company manufacturing various chemicals including ammonium chloride and Prussian blue dye.

    This became a successful business for Charles but he was not the kind of man just to focus on one thing. He was constantly looking for better ways and easier ways to do things and with the help of James Beaumont Nelson, he developed a process to make high-quality cast iron. This was an essential part of the industrial revolution that was happening in Britain at the time and was used to make machines, tools, bridges, and ships.

    After the death of his father, Charles inherited the family business and began to look for ways to invest his money. Around the same time, in 1817, the Glasgow Gas Light Company was established and Charles became interested in finding a use for the waste products from the coal gas industry. One of these was the waste product known as coal tar naptha. With a touch of genius that perhaps no one else at the time could have thought of Charles combined his knowledge of dyeing material with his love of chemistry.

    The result was a liquid rubber that when combined with other textiles made them waterproof. The rainproof cloth was quickly adopted by the British army and navy. It was sold to the public as the world’s first raincoat – the Mackintosh. Note the added ‘k’ to Charles’s name.

    Questions 8-14

    Complete the sentences below.

    Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

    8. ………………………………………was impossible to buy more than 200 years ago.

    9. Macintosh went to university instead of working for the…………………………………………. .

    10. By the time he was ………………………………… he had started his own company.

    11. Macintosh played a big part in the …………………………………..that was happening at the time.

    12. Coal tar naptha was a …………………………………………from the coal gas industry.

    13. After some research Macintosh was able to make ……………………………waterproof.

    14. The raincoat was finally ready when he added a ………………………………. .



    Reading Passage 2:-

    Questions 15-27

    Job Search Assistance from the Human Resources Dept.

    Economic woes

    1. Be organized.

    First and foremost make sure you are planning your attack on the job market in an organized and professional manner. Apply your talents to the cause for a fixed minimum number of hours per day. Keep records of everything you do. Obtain as much information as possible from reliable sources online and off, and be sure to keep a job search diary. Do not procrastinate. Always return calls when they are made to you, and follow up opportunities the moment they present themselves.

    2. Work on your resume.

    The important of well-presented, accurate and comprehensive resume cannot be overemphasized. Creating and composing a professional document is essential, but not everyone has specific experience about what and what not to include nor the requisite design skills. To show yourself in your best light, pay someone to perform this task for you. A quality resume be worth a hundred times what you spend on it.

    3. The importance of references.

    Use relevant references from as many reputable persons and establishments you have worked for in the past as you can. Although current policy forbids the disclosure of reference details, retrenched staff members can expect fair treatment and positive referrals from managers at this company when dismissal is due to unavoidable downsizing.

    4. Use a variety of search options.

    Use a job search agency to get the best jobs (you should not have to pay up front for this – or usually at all, since commission is obtained later from your employer). Peruse ads online and in the daily papers, both local and statewide. Contact companies direct, and make it known that your talents are for hire. Social media websites, including Twitter and Face book can help. Ask us how.

    5. Get networked.

    It can help a great deal to get others involved in your search. Te moral support of friends in a similar position to you will combine with your help towards them and create a synergy that opens doors and Moves Mountains!

    6. Dress well for the interview.

    Job applications do not always look the part. A prospective employer can easily be turned off by a scruffy person with good qualifications. Package yourself as you would a top product, for that is how you must present yourself. Incidentally, women are not advised to wear too much jewellery or make-up to an interview.

    7. Send a thank you note.

    Once your interview is over, and if you know it went well, consider sending a thank you note to the interviewer. The job application is not oven when you walk out the door. This small step can help resurrect your chance if the number of candidates for the job is large. Surprisingly, few people take advantage of this opportunity to be remembered.

    8. Keep a positive outlook.

    It is all too easy to become discouraged after failing to secure a job after a number of attempts. Try to learn something from each interview experience so that your failures will count towards your eventual success. Mock interview sessions can be arranged in the evening between managerial and floor staff. Contact Joan Blackwell on 0402-969-465 or speak directly with your manager.

    9. Things to avoid.

    Don’t imagine that get-rich-quick schemes or gambling with your payout funds will help you through the lean times. Job scams are an unfortunate fact of working life. If the job sounds too good to be true, it probably is. Never hand over money to a prospective employer in the hope that his or her offer of training will result in employment. More often than not, the job will fail to materialize.


    Questions 15-17

    Complete the following sentences with suitable words or phrases from the text above. Write your answers in boxes 15-17 on your answer sheet.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    EXAMPLE: The economic downturn is the reason that some staff members will be

    ………………………seeking employment…………………..

    15. When an opportunity arises follow it up immediately; in other words, …………………………………….

    16. It is not possible to …………………………….the need for a quality resume.

    17. When staff lose their jobs due to downsizing, they will receive ………………………………………….


    Questions 18-20

    Choose the correct letter from A-D. Write your answers in boxes 18-20 on your answer sheet.

    Example: A good resume should include references

                   A. regardless of their relevance

                  B. only if they are relevant.

                  C.  from all sources

                 D. both positive and negative.                            ANSWER B

    18. The Human Recourses Dept.

    A. Keeps the content of references private.

    B. Always gives a good reference to past employers.

    C. Advertises in the daily papers.

    D. Will contact companies directly for you.


    19. Paying a job search agency is

    A. Only necessary once you have landed the job.

    B. Not often the obligation of the job-seeker.

    C. An option to choose if you wish to get the better jobs.

    D. All of the above.


    20. At the interview session, you are advised

    A. To dress well but not to overdo the accessories.

    B. To take something positive from the interview.

    C. Not to accept costly training that might result in you being hired.

    D. All of the above.


    Question 21

    Choose THREE letters from A-G. Write your answer in box 21 on your answer sheet.

    Which THREE of the job search tips below are NOT mentioned in the text?

    A. Be regular in your job-seeking efforts

    B. Be selective when you record events in your job search diary

    C. Send your resume to as many companies as possible

    D. Team up with other job-seekers

    E. sharpen your interview skills with role-plays

    F. follow up on potentially successful interviews

    G. upgrade your job skills while looking for work


    Questions 22-27

    Read the text below and answer Question 22-27.

    Work Overtime – Facts and Fiction

    Working overtime for no pay has become standard practice in most offices and factories throughout the U.K., U.S., and even Australia and New Zealand – countries where Workers’ Union once ruled supreme. Gone are the days when union bosses could and would order workers to down tools and strike if employers so much as requested a minute of voluntary unpaid work time. What has gone wrong? Or right, depending on your viewpoint?

    The financial crisis that overwhelmed the world in September 2008 has been labeled the villain that finally put to rest any notion of compensation for overtime. Airline crews have regularly worked 15-hour shifts for many years with no such luxury. Restaurant staff starting at lunchtime can easily put in 12 hours a day with no expectation of extra pay for their trouble. The difference is that now, right across the board, workers are being asked to stay back at work or run the risk of not being asked to return. It might not be legal just yet, but it is happening.

    In Australia, a new Nation Employment Standard says “an employer must not request an employee work more than 38 hours unless the additional hours are reasonable”. But how does an employee argue that additional hours are unreasonable? Unreasonable for Whom and Why? What exactly constitute an unreasonable request to work back later? Working more than 50 hours a week is considered the uppermost limit before work starts to affect your health – according to the International Labour Organisation – but many workers are expected to work as many or more hours to satisfy the ever-increasing consumer demand for a shop or business to stay open and compete in the modern economy.

    This situation does not come as news to most older Asian workers who have long been used to working vast numbers of hours per week for a little or no extra monetary reward; however, there is a recent argument that is hard not to accept: worldwide living standards have increased to very high levels for many millions of consumers in the West, and large parts of Asia and fast catching up.

    In China and India for example, once considered slow-growth economies, the reward for exceptionally hard work is beginning to pay off, with millions of people now able to afford cars and white goods that were once luxuries enjoyed in the West.

    The fact is that working long and hard pays dividends; if not in the pay packet, then at the pump or at the local supermarket where prices are kept well within reasonable limits while living standards climb slowly higher for the benefit of all. Workers find it difficult to argue for higher wages for more work achieved when consumer rewards are already being felt across the entire world economy. At the same time, the boss can extract more and more hours from staff without having to pay for it. Paid overtime is becoming a distant memory.


    Questions 22-27

    Look at the following statements


    TRUE    if the statement is true

    FALSE if the statement is false

    NOT GIVEN   if the information is not given in the text.

    Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

    22. Unpaid overtime is limited to the airline and restaurant industry. ……………………………..

    23. Workers who refuse to perform unpaid overtime can be lawfully sacked. ………………………….

    24. Working back late is bad for your health. …………………………………………

    25. Asian workers now spend more than Western workers. …………………………..

    26. Living standards across the globe are steadily increasing. …………………………………

    27. Paid overtime may not be necessary when living standards are high. ……………………………


    Reading Passage 3:-

    Questions 28-40

    The reading passage “A Brief Look at the Indian Economy” on the following pages has nine paragraphs (A-I).

    Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below:

    Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 28-34 o your answer sheet.

    NB: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

    List of headings

    i. Layman’s Distance from ‘India Shining’ myth.

    ii. China-a role model for India.

    iii. Hindrances in India’s Export Efforts.

    iv. Need for efficiency through competition

    v. Warming Lessons from Turkey, Mexico & Thailand.

    vi. Corporate executives and economic reforms.

    vii. Skepticism about Indian economy.

    viii. And of the Period of Collective Instanity.

    ix. India’s inability to beat even small countries.

    x. Signs of recovery in Exports.

    xi. Possibility of economic progress that export of food items.

    xii. Corruption- the root cause of stagnation in India economy.

    Example:                     Answer

    Paragraph A                   (vii)       

       Paragraph I                    (iv)

    28. Paragraph B

    29. Paragraph C

    30. Paragraph D

    31. Paragraph E

    32. Paragraph F

    33. Paragraph G

    34. Paragraph H


    A brief look at the Indian Economy


    Only a few years ago, Indian economy was not that bright as it is today. There was skepticism about it even at the start of the current century. It was then that a renowned daily wrote in general about it: while we all remain preoccupied with politics and state – level troubles, certain extremely disturbing portends on the economic front have gone altogether unnoticed. The establishment naturally dislikes the negative side to be highlighted. The business magnates feel embarrassed to see their own pet projects go haywire. Instead, the emphasis is on applying a still higher dose of the same medicine. Thus, the truth about the state of the economy gets buried under layers of unreal projections and misleading interpretations. Contrary to the public perception, things have begun really turning topsy-turvy. Every economic indicator tells stories of stagnation or downward trend.


    Things have drastically changed now, even though it would be grossly wrong to be complacent or overoptimistic. We should not summarily dismiss the warning, albeit now it may seem unnecessary: some years back Turkey was forced into a similar crisis after it had allowed unrestricted imports following its joining the European Union. The imports grew at 30 per cent a year whereas the export growth was only 10 per cent. Through as a price the EU brought some foreign direct investment, this did not make up for the subsequent destruction of its domestic industry and massive unemployment with all its social and criminal consequences. We cannot forget that even the worse happened in Mexico, and economies like Thailand which had shown greatly rising trend at one time seemed to slip down suddenly.


    However, even earlier an expert said: economic reforms in India will continue irrespective of which party comes to power in the coming general elections: Liberalization and globalization are today dictated by the ‘zeitgeist’ – (the spirit of the times), which were long over – due and which were more powerful than policies of any government. The economic transformation had come after 40 years of India’s history as a republic when “the so-called leaders suffocated the people by state ownership and state control. But ever since the new industrial policy of 1991 was enunciated, a metamorphosis began ending the period of collective insanity.


    Three main reasons are attributed to Indian’s inability to make tremendous progress in the export sector: First, Indian industry is constantly subjected to the compelling pull of a large domestic market which makes exports a much less attractive proposition. Unlike small countries such as South Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore, India need not have an export-led growth. Second, India was an over-protected economy for a long time and it is only in 1991 that things begin to change. The result is that India’s mollycoddled manufacturing sector has become in inefficient, producing sub-standard goods which sell high profit in a captive market. Third, India’s rotten infrastructure is not at all equipped for a high export growth rate. The cost of transport by road and rail is high compared to our competitors. The turning around our ship in Indian ports varies from four to seven days, whereas it is hardly twelve hours in Sri Lanka and four to five hours in South Korea and Singapore. The container facility is not available in time. Loading and unloading of air cargo is too slow to meet international delivery schedules. And the whole system is reeking of corruption, with exporters having to pay “speed money” at every step.


    We must remember that now many of the bottlenecks in the streamline are being removed and efforts are being made to streamline the exports. A new culture of producing high quality goods for exports is being created. There is still the sad aspect that corruption in the system, as in almost all fields of society, is not being satisfactorily controlled. In spite of certain negative points being still prevalent while some innonative have also be taken, the Indian exports have for quite some time past been showing great signs of recovery, as is clear from the newspaper reports which occasionally depict the situation.


    As for the present it has become a fashion to boast of India’s economic growth, and the political leaders both at the centre and in the states are reaping rich dividends in one or the other form by orchestrating this mantra, and in this, now even Left parties that previously frowned at reforms, are not lagging behind. However, the learned reviewer of a book on India’s economy has thus expressed his views: the economic boom, which our leaders and media luminaries never tire of celebrating, appears an entirely remote abstraction to many lay people. The magic of soaring Sensex figures, which put stars in the eyes of the dreamers of Dalal Street, hardly seems related to any material progress in living standards even for the majority of the middle class, let alone the masses.

    While dwelling NDA government’s “India Shining” theme a leading economist said that the false presentation of this aspect which was not all-inclusive became a cause for the governments defeat. He says: the previous government went into the collection under the slogan “Indian Shining” suggesting that its economic policies had produced results which justified its re-election. The electorate clearly thought otherwise. Such growth that occurred was also seen as benefitting only a few the software and business process outsourcing sectors were clearly “shining” but performance in critical area such as agriculture was unforgivably poor. Another economist looking with equal eye at India’s and China’s “dramatic” rise explains: Indian and Chinese elites borrow no less eagerly than their western counter-parts from the discourse of neo-orientalism as they attribute India and China’s recent economic growth to the free markets they embraced in the 1980s and 1990s. But even a casual glance at their claims will reveal them to be caricatures of a complex political and economic reality.


    Nobody can deny that now India is progressing rapidly, the growth rate hovering around 9 percent. But it needs to be further accelerated. According to an expert, growth will be possible by public and private investment and technological intervention. Food and agriculture will continue to be the growth drivers of the North. What is needed is innovation in product mix and cutting-edge technologies. He was talking about the possibilities of economic progress through export of food items. He further said: we found that a number of agencies (over 30) were involved in allowing export of agri-commodities and the exporters have to fill innumerable documents. The committee has now recommended that a single export document be introduced for exporters which will be electronically filed. When the documents will be electronically filed, various government agencies can pick up the information they require. It has also been recommended to setup a nodal agency to deal with these agri-exports which will have simplified documentation and procedure. We must, however, remember that any slacking in agricultural growth can be suicidal for India: India’s domestic market is very large and any shortage of food items can cause widespread unrest, especially among the lower classes of society. Fortunately the past year has witnessed an unprecedented agricultural growth, being 3.5 per cent, which is close to the targeted 4 per cent.


    One bane of the economic reforms is said to be the creation of vast inequalities of income. An expert says: Since the economic reforms began, the top 20 per cent have also benefited from tax reforms which has meant lower and lower taxes. The politicians in power have favoured the corporate sector and today the top echelons of society comprise of top bureaucrats, politicians, business magnets and executives. India’s corporation sector has been flourishing in recent years and Indian corporate executives, according to the economist, London, are the highest paid in the world because of high/monetary compensation and a lower cost of living. But there only a few thousand in number and are busy job-hopping for higher and higher pay.

    However, Swraj Paul has a different option. He spells out the mantra for growth, Poverty alleviation and increasing employment avenues. According to him, the right action is that which benefit over one million people of India. What we really need is efficiency which will come with competition. It means the more the people can afford the more the products. The government should not allow abuse by allowing monopolies that’s why competition is necessary. There is not a too much difference between private and public monopolies. Reforms do not create unemployment. They will lead to more employment, bring costs down and create our bigger market.

    Glossary: Zeitgeist = the spirit of the times


    Question 35 to 40

    Using the information in the passage, complete the chart below:

    Write your answer in the boxes 35 – 40 on your answer sheet.

    Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer


    The skeptical view of Indian economy is that the 

    The interpretations are ………………………………………       

    ANSWER – misleading     

    There were 35……………………………… that played havoc with the Turkish economy.

    It is the zeitgeist which is now dictating 36………………………………

    The new industrial policy was started in India in 37……………………………….

    India’s export proportion losses lustre because of its having a 38…………………………………

    India’s and China’s “dramatic“rise only present 39……………………………….. of a particular type of economy.

    The job of most highly paid Indian corporate executives seems only to be 40…………………. nothing more.


    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below


    IELTS Reading practice 5 - Answers


    1. Recently deceased
    2. Pollen
    3. Hair analysis
    4. Pollen
    5. 3/ three times
    6. Pain relief
    7. Chief
    8. A waterproof coat
    9. Family business
    10. 20/ twenty
    11. Industry revolution
    12. Waste product
    13. Textiles
    14. K
    15. Do not procrastinate /(Always) return calls/ be organized
    16. Overemphasis
    17. Fair treatment/ positive referrals
    18. A
    19. B
    20. D
    21. B, C, G  (answers to 21 may be in any order, but all 3 answers must be given)
    22. FALSE
    23. FALSE
    24. NOT GIVEN
    25. NOT GIVEN
    26. TRUE
    27. TRUE
    28. (v)
    29. (Viii)
    30. (iii)
    31. (x)
    32. (i)
    33. (xi)
    34. (vi)
    35. Unrestricted imports
    36. Liberalization and globalization
    37. 1991
    38. Large domestic market
    39. Caricatures
    40. Job hopping


  • IELTS General Reading Test 4 – Best Test with Answers

    General IELTS Reading Test 4 – Best Test

    Reading Passage 1

    Questions 1-14

    Read the text below and answer questions 1-7

    Dealing with Pest in the Home

    If you find evidence that your home is infested by pests such as ants, cockroaches, mice or rats, you may be able to take action by yourself, but often you may wish to call in a pest control service. It is important to choose a company that will provide you with an efficient service and will also be good value for money.

    Even if the problem seems urgent, it’s worth spending some time investigating two or three companies in order to choose the best one. It’s often best to start by asking friends or neighbors for recommendations. However, you should also check that the company’s employees are properly qualified and licensed, and find out how many years they’ve been in business.

    Find out whether the company offers free estimates and whether the work is guaranteed. Many companies will only guarantee the work done on your property if you agree to pay for a regular inspection fee, so you should check this. Ask them what products they will use and what action they will take to reduce risks to the environment. You may also wish to contract the state pesticide regulatory office to find out if there have been any complaints about the company, or any breach of safety regulations.

    Once you have fived a date, make sure that any necessary preparation such as clearing kitchen cupboards is done ahead of time. Pets should be kept out of the house and if pesticide sprays are used, children should be kept away from any treated areas until the spray has dried.

    You may be offered a service contract which your house will be regularly treated, but this should not be necessary if the initial treatment has been. It is not a good idea for chemical treatment to be used there is actual evidence of an infestation.

    Questions 1-7

    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

    In the boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                   if the statement agrees with the information

    FALSE                  if the statement contradicts the information

    NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this

    1. A pest control company should always be contracted if household pests are found.
    2. It is best to choose a company that specializes in the type of pest that you have.
    3. Pests must be removed as soon as possible after they have been discovered.
    4. It is common for companies to guarantee work only when customers buy further inspection services.
    5. All pest control companies should be registered with the state pesticide regulatory office.
    6. Children can return to the area being treated once the pesticide has dried.
    7. Repeated treatments of pesticides should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

    Read the text below and answer questions 8-14

    Online Reviews on City Parks

    A. Central Park New York

    Amazing park with lots to do. There’s place where you can borrow chess or a checkers set and just sit and play with strangers on the tables outside in a beautiful calm setting. We spent an hour exploring the conservatory garden with its Italian, French and English sections.

    B. Beihai Park Beijing

    An emperor built this park hundreds of years ago to recreate an old legend of a place with magic mountains – there are represented in the park by three hills. There’s also a beautiful lake – we rented bikes and went round it, but you can also go boating there. At weekends local people go there to practice tai chi.

    C. Hyde Park London

    You could spend all day here. It’s in the heart of the city but a great place to escape the crowds. There are electric buggies to take disabled visitors around the gardens at no charge. The children can enjoy playing mini-golf, there’s a lovely lake called the serpentine where you can hire boats.

    D. Botanic Gardens Singapore

    We went there to see the orchid garden fantastic! Hundred of varieties. Some even grow on trees! You can get there easily on the hop-on-hop-off bus. Walking through the rain forest and looking at the swan lake are experiences not to be missed.

    E. Park Guell Barcelona

    This park was designed by the Spanish artist and architect Antonio gaudi. Lots of artwork are made from mosaic tiles, including a long curving bench which is apparently the world’s longest, it’s a great place to look down on Barcelona after sunset and see all light twinkling.

    F. Stanley Park Vancouver

    My husband can’t walk far so we were glad to take advantage of the miniature train, which doesn’t cost much. You can also rent a bicycle. There’s a famous tree which had its middle burnt out and everyone takes photos of themselves inside it-apparently even an elephant can get in there!

    Questions 8-14

    Look at the six reviews of parks A-F

    Which review mentions the following?

    Write the correct letter A-F in the boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet

    NB you may use any letter more than once

    8. The design of the park was inspired by a traditional story.

    9. You can see an unusual decorated seat.

    10. Free transport is provided for people who can’t walk easily.

    11. There is a large and unusual tree.

    12. You can hire a bicycle to ride around a lake.

    13. There are facilities for board games. 

    14. There’s a good view of the city at night.

    Reading Passage 2

    Read the text below and answer questions 15- 20

    Extra work

    As a result of our success in the recent food industry awards, we are delighted that we have just gained several new contracts to supply major supermarkets. This will have a major impact on the production department, and to meet the increased demand, a night shift will be introduced from the beginning of next month. Details of times and the higher rate of pay are available on the Intranet. New staff will be recruited, but if you are interested in joining, please sign up online.


    Maria Fuentes is retiring after a long career with the company. She initially worked in the legal Department, switching to Finance four years later. She has been in charge of that department for the last twelve years. Maria will be sorely missed. Her last day is 30th September, and everyone is invited to drop into the department and say goodbye to her between noon and 3 pm that day. A buffet will be provided, free of charge. The CEO will make a short speech at 2 pm.


    The company has decided to introduce sponsorship, to benefit the community and raise our profile in the locality, and a team will be set up to decide on the most effective ways of implementing this. If you have got ideas and would like to be involved, call Germaine Peters on extension 7610.

    Advance notice

    Once again, we’ll have a stand at the Western Region Food Fair in November. The Marketing Department will provide staff for the stand, but we are also looking for a number of volunteers (from any department ) to increase our visibility informally-by going round the venue, disturbing leaflets, tasting samples from other stands, and so on. We’ll provide sweatshirts bearing the company name and logo, which all staff at the fair will wear. Call marketing if you’re interested.


    The review of working conditions is now complete, and a number of improvements have been identified, which will shortly be introduced. Kerry Fisher will explain the changes and how they’ll affect you, next Wednesday (17th ) at 3 pm in the conference room.

    And Finally…..

    Several of you have shown interest in restarting the company table tennis tournament, after a two-year break. If you’d like to help organize it and/or participate, please contact George Bradford on extension 4153. You don’t need to be an expert player!

    Questions 15-20

    Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

    Berkeley Foods News

    • New 15……………... ( available to new and existing staff) because of extra orders
    • Present Head of 16……………….Department is leaving
    • New team to consider best ways of helping the local 17…………….
    • Staff needed to give out 18………………….. at food fair
    • Next Wednesday: Kerry Fisher’s talk about to 19……………..
    • Internal 20………………..competition may start again

    Read the text below and answer questions 21-27

    Rewards and benefits for staff at Prichard Fashion Stores

    We want all our staff at Prichard Fashion Stores to feel they are well rewarded for their work. This obviously benefits them, by making their work more enjoyable, and it benefits the company because satisfied staff is less likely to leave. So we offer the staff a package of rewards that have been shown to attract, motivate and retain the best people. This is what you can currently enjoy.

    Pay: we benchmark our salaries and wages against other companies in the same sector, in order to ensure we are competitive and keep up with changes in the market. We carry out a pay review every year, and also give all staff a bonus which is a fixed proportion of the company’s annual profits

    Pension: it is important for everyone to save for their retirement. To encourage this, we offer the opportunity of joining a pension plan: you contribute 3% of your pay into this, and Prichard contributes 6%.

    Life Assurance: as soon as you start working for Prichard you will receive life assurance cover to the value of twice your annual salary.

    Employee discount: we give all staff a discount of 20% on anything they buy from the company, whether in-store or online. Certain exclusions apply, which are specified on the company intranet. However, there is no limit on how much you can buy using the discount. Family members and partners who permanently live with you are also eligible for the discount.

    Holidays: by law, all full-time staff members are entitled to a minimum of 28 days’ paid holiday per year, including bank holidays. Prichard pays 28 days plus the eight days of bank holidays and another two days, meaning that everyone is paid for at least 38 days’ leave per year. We carry out an annual review of individual holiday entitlement. If you work part-time, your holiday entitlement will relate to the hours you work each week.

    Savings scheme: our new savings scheme is an easy way to save for the future. Every month, you pay any amount up to £250 into the scheme. After three years, you can choose either to invest your savings in Prichard shares at a 25% discount or to get your savings back with interest.

    Questions 21- 27

    Complete the sentence below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

    Write your answer in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

    21.   Prichard provides staff with a………….of benefits.

    22.   The company aims to pay………salaries and wages.

    23.   Staff are paid a……………related to the company’s profits.

    24.   Staff and the company may both contribute to providing a……………..

    25.  Staff receive a discount on items they purchase from the company, apart from some…………..

    26.    A…………. of the amount of holiday that employees are entitled to is undertaken every year.

    27.    The company savings scheme enables staff to buy………….after a certain time if they choose to.

    Reading Passage 3

    Read the text below and answer questions 28-40.

    Joseph Paxton: Gardner and Architect

    A. Joseph Paxton was born in 1803 and grew up on a farm 70 km north of London, although his date of birth is sometimes mistakenly given as 1801. After a series of gardening jobs when in his teens, at the age of 20 he claimed to be two years older than he really was to obtain a post as a gardener with the Horticultural Society, at Chiswick Gardens, a few miles from London. The gardens were leased from a wealthy aristocrat, the Duke of Devonshire, who gad a house nearby. The duke saw and was impressed by Paxton’s horticultural achievements, and in 1826 offered him the position of head gardener at his large country house, Chatsworth, in the English.

    B. On his first day in his new post, he met Sarah Bown, the niece of Chatsworth’shousekeeper. Before long they had a long and happy marriage. At Chatsworth Paxton designed gardens, fountains, an arboretum-a collection of trees-and even rebuilt a village. His emperor Fountain involved removing 76,000 m3 of earth from a hill above the gardens, in order to create a lake to feed the fountain.

    C. At Chatsworth Paxton also constructed the Great Conservatory, a massive glass structure supported by a cast-iron framework, at a time when glasshouses were very new. Its purpose was to house plants imported from tropical, the plants needed different temperatures. Paxton’s solution was to install eight boilers, to gradually increase the temperature from one end of the conservatory to the other. His design for the roof maximized light and heat from the sun and drained rainwater away through hollow cast-iron columns. All the elements that made up the conservatory were prefabricated, and could be produced in large quantities and assembled into buildings of various designs. Completed in 1840, the conservatory was the largest glass building in the world –69m long by 37m wide. It was lit by 12,000 lamps for a visit by Queen Victoria when she was driven through the building in a carriage.

    D. Ten years later Paxton was responsible for the lily house at Chatsworth, built for a waterlily from the Amazon. He was struck by the strength of the Waterlily’s huge leaves – reaching 1.4m in diameter – which he demonstrated by standing his daughter on one as it floated on the water. He based the design of the lily house on these leaves.

    E. Paxton is best remembered for the Crystal Palace, the building he designed for the great Exhibition of 1851 in London’s Hyde Park. The committee responsible for the exhibition hall examined 245 designs, all of them unsuitable, though one had been accepted as the least bad option, and was well into its planning stage. Paxton happened to be in London to attend a business meeting and mentioned an idea he had to be done within the next nine days. He met this deadline, but some members of the committee objected to dropping the current proposal. Paxton’s response was to publish his ideas in the illustrated London News, and the reaction was so favorable that the committee substituted his design for the one previously chosen.

    F. The design 2as a development of the great Conservatory and lily house Chatsworth: a modular, prefabricated structure of glass and cast iron. It was 563m long, 124m wide and 33m high. Mist importantly, unlike the other proposals it was cheap, easy to erect and remove, and could be constructed quickly; in fact, it took 2,000 men only eight months to build. The great Exhibition was an enormous success, and Paxton was one of three men knighted for making that possible.

    G. Paxton remained as head gardener at Chatsworth,: duke admired and supported him, and left him free to take on many other projects. Besides the Crystal Palace, he designed several country houses and public parks, and was a director of the Midland Railway. His investment in the booming railway industry made him wealthy. In 1858 the duke died and Paxton retired from Chatsworth.

    H. One of his most innovative designs, although never implemented, was the great Victorian Way. Paxton presented his plan to a parliamentary committee in 1855. It was intended as a  solution to the severe congestion in the streets of London. It was for 16km loop around the centre of the city, constructed of iron and glass-like Crystal Palace, and Liking London’s railway termini. Paxton pointed out that by road it took longer to make an eight-kilometer journey across London than it took to travel by train the 120 kilometres from  London to Brighton. Paxton’s design contained glass-roofed roadways, with houses or shops on each side. It also incorporated two levels of atmospheric railway tracks, one for fast trains and one for a sewer network in London became overwhelming. With both projects requiring major investment, only one could be affordable, and the sewers were the more urgent. From 1854 until his death, Paxton was a member of Parliament, and continued working on various projects after retiring from Chatsworth. He died in 1865 at the age of 61, and was buried on the Chatsworth estate. His wife lived until 1871.

    Questions 28-35

    The text has eight sections, A-H.

    Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of heading below.

    Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    1. Why Paxton’s proposed structure couldn’t be built
    2. A major transformation of the landscape
    3. Paxton travels abroad
    4. Inspiration from nature
    5. Support from his employer
    6. Inaccurate information helps in getting a job
    7. Making the most of an unplanned opportunity
    8. Accommodation plants with different requirements
    9. Buildings that inspired other architects
    10. Why Paxton’s design was the most suitable

    28.   Section A      ……………..

    29.   Section B      ……………..

    30.   Section C      ……………..

    31.   Section D      …………….

    32.   Section E      …………….

    33.   Section F     ……………..

    34.   Section G     …………….

    35.   Section H     …………….

    Questions 36-40

    Complete the summary below.

    Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

    Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    The Great Conservatory at Chatsworth

    The Great Conservatory was constructed of 36……………….held in a cast iron structure. It contained several 37……………so that one end could be made warmer than the other. Rainwater was brought from the roof down to ground level inside cast iron38…………... Every part of the building was 39…………….. and then put together on site to form the conservatory. Queen Victoria visited and travelled through the conservatory by 40………………

    Thanks for visiting our Reading Test. Answers are below


    IELTS Reading practice 4 - Answers


    1. F
    2. Not given
    3. F
    4. T
    5. NOT GIVEN
    6. T
    7. T
    8. B
    9. E
    10. C
    11. F
    12. B
    13. A
    14. E
    15. Night shift
    16. Finance
    17. Community
    18. Leaflets
    19. Working conditions
    20. Table tennis
    21. Package
    22. Competitive
    23. Bonus
    24. Pension
    25. Exclusions
    26. Review
    28. vi
    29. ii
    30. viii
    31. iv
    32. vii
    33. x
    34. v
    35. i
    36. glass
    37. Boilers
    38. Columns
    39. Prefabricated
    40. Carriage


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