IELTS Listening Test

  • IELTS LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 6

    Part 1: Questions 1-3
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    BORGHEIMER LANGUAGE COURSES INFORMATION

    Course Level – 3/ lower intermediate

    Customer’s name: (1) 
    Maximum class size: (2) 
    Hours of study per day (weekdays): (3) 
    Most expensive accommodation: (4) 
    First Berlin course begins: (5) 

    Questions 6 and 7
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things does he need to buy for the course?

     A computer
     B computer disks
     C dictionary
     D translation exercises
     E textbooks

    Questions 8-10
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    8. Without the student discount, the course costs  Euros.

    9. Payment can be made by credit card or by 

    10. To get a free course you need to find  other people.

     

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    11. Ministers and officials put the  of the agriculture business first.

    12. Hormones make cattle  thus making meat production more profitable.

    13. The use of hormones was banned over  ago in Europe.

    14. The USA and Canada asked the WTO to declare the ban 

    15. A Danish study shows that hormones are over more dangerous than was previously thought.

    Questions 16-20
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Lack of testing

    The government has not been testing beef which is (16)  much to the anger of Mr. Verral. About (17)  of the beef which British people eat comes from abroad, some of it from Brazil, a country which on paper does not allow the use of (18)  However, when some EU inspectors visited a Brazilian farm, they found a (19)  of the banned substance. This is not the first food scandal we have had in this country. Several months ago, a well-known chocolate company found out its sweets were contaminated with (20)  of salmonella.

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    High achievers

    Although it is thought that people who bring work home every night would be top achievers, they tend to peak early and then go into (21)  High achievers work hard, but within (22)  It is also important to choose (23)  you enjoy. Top achievers spend over (24)  of their working hours doing work they prefer. They want (25)  not just external rewards.

    Questions 26-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Top achievers take risks
     A without worrying about the consequences
     B only if they are assured of success
     C even if they face possible failure

    27. Very often perfectionists
     A turn out to be top achievers
     B don’t get many results
     C are not hard working

    28. When top achievers make mistakes
     A they ignore the fact
     B they get angry with themselves
     C they learn from the experience

    29. Top achievers tend to be people who
     A work well with others
     B prefer to work alone
     C complicate matters

    30. Loners
     A want to do everything themselves
     B are free of the compulsion to be perfect
     C take no notice of rivals

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Exposure to bright light
     A stopped production of melatonin in patients
     B increased the production of melatonin in many patients
     C caused people to crave sweet things

    32. Melatonin’s role in SAD is
     A not considered that important
     B now fully understood
     C not fully understood

    33. Subsyndromal SAD
     A is more common than SAD
     B has approximately the same number of sufferers as SAD
     C is far less common than SAD

    34. You would expect the typical SAD sufferer to be
     A a 45 year old man
     B a 16 year old girl
     C a 25 year old women

    Questions 35-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    35. Depression probably has a  as it seems to run in the family.

    36. Many SAD sufferers have a  craving.

    37. Serotonin has a  effect on the brain.

    38. The serotonin system of the brain cannot regulate itself well during 

    39. Some neurotransmitters may be  in certain cases.

    40. Many SAD patients put on fat in late autumn, just as 

     

    Answers

    1. John Petterson
    2. 12
    3. 5
    4. Bed and breakfast
    5. 8th June
    6. C
    7. E
    8. 550
    9. Bank transfer
    10. Five
    11. Profits
    12. Grow faster
    13. 20 years
    14. Illegal
    15. 200 times
    16. Imported
    17. 40%
    18. (growth) hormones
    19. Large stockpile
    20. A rare form
    21. Decline
    22. Strict limits
    23. A career
    24. Two-thirds
    25. Internal satisfaction
    26. C
    27. B
    28. C
    29. A
    30. A
    31. A
    32. C
    33. A
    34. C
    35. Genetic component
    36. Carbohydrate
    37. Soothing
    38. (the) winter
    39. Inadequate
    40. Hibernations

  • IELTS LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 5

     

    Part 1: Questions 1-3
    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Rented Properties Customer’s Requirements
    Name:        Steven Godfrey
    No. of bedrooms:         4
    Preferred location:                        in the (1)  area of town
    Maximum monthly rent:             (2) £ 
    Length of let required:                 (3) 
    Starting:                                          September 1st

    Questions 4-8
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    (4)                   (5) 
    (6)                   (7) 
    (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
     A museum
     B concert hall
     C cinema
     D sports centre
     E swimming pool

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTER
    Well known for: (11) 
    Complex consists of: concert rooms, theatres, cinemas, art galleries, public library,
    restaurants and a (12) 
    Historical background: 1940-area destroyed by bombs
    1960s-1970s: centre was (13)  and built in (14)  – opened to public
    Managed by: the (15) 
    Open: (16)  days per year

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    (17)                 (18) 
    (19)                (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Latin American Studies
    21. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
     A to teach English there
     B to improve his Spanish
     C to learn about Latin American life

    22. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
     A construction
     B agriculture
     C tourism

    23. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
     A His first job was not well organized
     B He found doing the routine work very boring
     C The work was too physically demanding

    24. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
     A respect family life
     B develop trust
     C use money wisely

    25. What does Paul say about his project manager?
     A He let Paul do most of the work
     B His plans were too ambitious
     C He was very supportive of Paul

    26. Paul was surprised to be given
     A a computer to use
     B so little money to live on
     C an extension to his contract

    Questions 27-30

    What does Paul decide about each of the following modules?
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 27-30.

    Module
    27. Gender studies in Latin America 
    28. Second language acquisition 
    29. Indigenous women’s lives 
    30. Portuguese language studies 

    A He will do this.
    B He might do this.
    C He won’t do this.

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Trying to repeat success
    31. Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are
     A more attractive
     B more frequent
     C more straightforward

    32. Most research into the repetition of success in business has
     A been done outside the United States
     B produced consistent findings
     C related to only a few contexts

    33. What does the speaker say about consulting experts?
     A Too few managers ever do it
     B It can be useful in certain circumstances
     C Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice

    34. An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because
     A some details are difficult for workers to explain
     B workers choose not to mention certain details
     C details are sometimes altered by workers

    Questions 35-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    Setting up systems based on an existing process
    Two mistakes:
    Manager tries to:
    • Improve on the original process
    • Create an ideal (35)  from the best parts of several processes

    Cause of problems
    • Information was inaccurate
    • Comparison between the business settings was invalid
    • Disadvantages were overlooked e.g. effect of changes on (36) 

    Solution
    • Change (37) 
    • Impose rigorous (38) 
    • Copy original very closely:
    o Physical features of the (39) 
    o The (40)  of original employees

     

     

    Answers

    1. central
    2. 600
    3. 2 years
    4. garage
    5. garden
    6. study
    7. noisy
    8. 595
    9. B
    10. E
    11. classical music concerts
    12. bookshop
    13. planned
    14. 1983
    15. city council
    16. 363
    17. garden hall
    18. three lives
    19. 4.50
    20. faces of China
    21. C
    22. C
    23. A
    24. B
    25. C
    26. A
    27. C
    28. A
    29. B
    30. C
    31. B
    32. B
    33. B
    34. A
    35. combination/ system
    36. safety
    37. attitude
    38. control
    39. factory
    40. skills

     

     

  • IELTS LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 4

     

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    WEST BAY HOTEL – DETAILS OF JOB

    • Newspaper advert for temporary staff
    • Vacancies for (1) 
    • Two shifts
    • Can choose your (2)  (must be the same each week)
    • Pay: £5.50 per hour including a (3) 
    • A (4)  is provided in the hotel
    • Total weekly pay: £231
    • Dress: a white shirt and (5)  trousers (not supplied), a
    (6)
      (supplied)
    • Starting date: (7) 
    • Call Jane (8)  (service manage) before
    (9)
      tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
    • She will require a (10) 

     

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Improvements to Red Hill Suburb

    11. Community groups are mainly concerned about
     A pedestrian safety
     B traffic jams
     C increased pollution

    12. It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be
     A extended
     B buried
     C repaired

    13. The expenses related to the power lines will be paid by
     A the council
     B the power company
     C local businesses

    Questions 14-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-20.

    Road Hill Improvement Plan

    ielts-listening-test-4

     

    14. Trees 
    15. Wider footpaths 
    16. Coloured road surface 
    17. New sign 
    18. Traffic lights 
    19. Artwork 
    20. Children’s playground 

     

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course?
     A He is receiving money from the government
     B His family are willing to help him
     C The college is giving him a small grant
     D His local council is supporting him for a limited period
     E A former employer is providing partial funding

    Questions 23 and 24
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
     A She is not sufficiently challenged
     B The activity interferes with her studies
     C She does not have enough time
     D The activity is too demanding physically
     E She does not think she is any good at the activity

    Questions 25 and 26
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    25. What does Dan say about the seminars on the course?
     A The other students do not give him a chance to speak
     B The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students
     C The preparation for seminars takes too much time

    26. What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
     A They are an inefficient way of providing guidance
     B They are more challenging than she had expected
     C They are helping her to develop her study skills

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    ielts-listening-test-4

    (27)                  (28) 
    (29)                  (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36

    Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings

    Which painting styles have the following features?
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 31-36.

    Features
    31. figures revealing bones 
    32. rounded figures 
    33. figures with parts missing 
    34. figures smaller than life size 
    35. sea creatures 
    36. plants 

    Painting Styles
    A Dynamic
    B Yam
    C Modern

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    RAINBOW SERPENT PROJECT

    Aim of project: to identify the (37)  used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent
    Yam Period:
    • Environmental changes led to higher (38) 
    • Traditional activities were affected especially (39) 

    Rainbow Serpent Image
    • Similar to a sea horse
    • Unusual because it appeared in inland areas
    • Symbolises (40)  in Aboriginal culture

     

    Answers

    1. waiter(s)
    2. day off
    3. break
    4. (free) meal
    5. dark (colored)
    6. jacket
    7. 28 June
    8. Urwin
    9. 12.00 pm/ noon
    10. reference
    11. A
    12. B
    13. B
    14. C
    15. D
    16. G
    17. B
    18. F
    19. A
    20. E
    21. B
    22. E
    23. A
    24. C
    25. B
    26. C
    27. priorities
    28. timetables
    29. (small) tasks
    30. (single) paragraph
    31. C
    32. B
    33. C
    34. A
    35. B
    36. B
    37. animal/ creature
    38. sea/ water level
    39. hunting
    40. creation

  • IELTS LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 3

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

    Job Inquiry
    Work at:                          a restaurant
    Type of work:                (1) 
    Number of hours per week: 12 hours
    Would need work permit
    Work in the:                  (2)  branch
    Nearest bus stop: next to (3) 
    Pay:                                 (4) £  an hour
    Extra benefits: a free dinner
    Extra pay when you work on (5) 
    Transport home when you work (6) 
    Qualities required:        (7) 
    Ability to (8) 
    Interview arranged for: Thursday (9)  at 6 pm
    Ask for:                            Samira (10) 

     

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    SPORTS WORLD
    • a new (11)  of an international sports goods company
    • located in the shopping centre to the (12)  of Bradcaster
    • has sports (13)  and equipment on floors 1 – 3
    • can get you any item within (14)  days
    • shop specialises in equipment for (15) 
    • has a special section which just sells (16) 

    Questions 17 and 18
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    17. A champion athlete will be in the shop
     A on Saturday morning only
     B all day Saturday
     C for the whole weekend

    18. The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win
     A gym membership
     B a video
     C a calendar

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?
     A You need to reserve a place
     B It is free to account holders
     C You get advice on how to improve your health
     D It takes place in a special clinic
     E It is cheaper this month

     

    Part 3: Questions 21-30
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Course Feedback
    21. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that
     A he was not nervous
     B his style was good
     C the presentation was the best in his group

    22. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations?
     A Their presentations were not interesting
     B They found their presentations stressful
     C They didn’t look at the audience enough

    23. After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt
     A delighted
     B dissatisfied
     C embarrassed

    24. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
     A not very happy
     B really pleased
     C fairly confident

    25. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
     A They are polite to each other
     B They agree to take turns in speaking
     C They know each other well

    26. Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now?
     A She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting
     B She is making more of a contribution
     C The tutor includes her in the discussion

    27. To help her understand lectures, Hiroko
     A consulted reference materials
     B had extra tutorials with her lecturers
     C borrowed lecture notes from other students

    28. What does Spiros think of his reading skills?
     A He reads faster than he used to
     B It still takes him a long time to read
     C He tends to struggle with new vocabulary

    29. What is Hiroko’s subject area?
     A environmental studies
     B health education
     C engineering

    30. Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should
     A learn more vocabulary
     B read more in their own subject areas
     C develop better reading strategies

     

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins
    Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die
    Common in areas where the (31)  can change quickly

    Several other theories:
    Parasites
    e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ (32)  ,which they depend on for navigation

    Toxins
    Poisons from (33)  or  are commonly consumed by whales
    e.g. Cape Cod (1988) – whales were killed by saxitoxin

    Accidental Strandings
    Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995)
    Unlikely because the majority of animals were not (34)  when they stranded

    Human Activity
    (35)  from military tests are linked to some recent strandings
    The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales
    • were all (36) 
    • were not in a (37) 

    Group Behaviour
    • More standings in the most (38)  species of whales
    • 1994 dolphin stranding – only the (39)  was ill

    Further Reading
    Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) – gives information about stranding
    (40)
     

     

    Answers

    1. answer(ing) phone
    2. Hillsdunne road
    3. library
    4. 4.45
    5. national holidays
    6. after 11’o clock
    7. clear voice
    8. think quickly
    9. 22 october
    10. Manuja
    11. branch
    12. west
    13. clothing
    14. 10
    15. running
    16. bags
    17. A
    18. A
    19. A (in any order 19 and 20)
    20. E
    21. B
    22. C
    23. B
    24. A
    25. C
    26. B
    27. A
    28. B
    29. C
    30. B
    31. tide(s)
    32. hearing/ ear/ ears
    33. plants and animals
    34. feeding
    35. noise(s)
    36. healthy
    37. group
    38. social
    39. leader
    40. network(s)

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test 2

    IELTS LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2



    PART 1 – Questions 1-10

    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Accommodation Form – Student Information
    Type of accommodation: _____hall_______ of residence
    Name: Anu 1 ____________________
    Date of birth: 2 ____________________
    Country of origin: India
    Course of study: ____________________
    Number of years planned in hall: ____________________
    Preferred catering arrangement: half board
    Special dietary requirements: no _________________ (red)
    Preferred room type: a single __________________
    Interests: ·         the _________________

    ·         badminton

       Priorities in choice of hail:

     

    to be with other students who are 8__________

    to live outside the 9 ____________________

    to have a 10 ___________ area for socialising

    Contact phone number: 667549

     

    PART 2 – Questions 11-20

    Questions: 11-13. Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Parks and open spaces

    Name of place Of particular interest Open
    Halland Common source of River Ouse 24 hours
    Holt Island many different 11 _______ between 12 __________

    and Sunday

    Longfield Country Park reconstruction of a 2,000-year-old 13____________ with activities for children daylight hours

     

    Questions: 14-16. Choose the correct letter, AB or C.

    Longfield Park

    14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will

    • A – prepare food with herbs.
    • B – meet a well-known herbalist.
    • C – dye cloth with herbs.

    15. For the activity on Wednesday,

    • A – only group bookings are accepted.
    • B – visitors should book in advance.
    • C – attendance is free.

    16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should

    • A – come in suitable clothing.
    • B – make sure they are able to stay for the whole day.
    • C – tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do.

     

    Questions: 17-20. Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 17-20.

    Listening-Book-2-Test-2

    17. bird hide _____

    18. dog-walking area _____

    19. flower garden    _____

    20. wooded area     _____

     

    PART 3 – Questions 21-30

    Questions: 21-24.

    Choose the correct letter, AB or C.

    Self-Access Centre

    21. Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because

    • A – they enjoy the variety of equipment.
    • B – they like being able to work on their own.
    • C – it is an important part of their studies.

    22. Some teachers would prefer to

    • A – close the Self-Access Centre.
    • B – move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere.
    • C – restrict access to the Self-Access Centre.

    23. The students’ main concern about using the library would be

    • A – the size of the library.
    • B – difficulty in getting help.
    • C – the lack of materials.

    24. The Director of Studies is concerned about

    • A – the cost of upgrading the centre.
    • B – the lack of space in the centre.
    • C – the difficulty in supervising the centre.

    Questions: 25—30.

    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre

    Equipment

    Replace computers to create more space.

    Resources

    The level of the 25 ________________ materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown.

    Update the 26 ___________________ collection.

    Buy some 27 __________________ and divide them up.

    Use of the room

    Speak to the teachers and organise a 28 ____________________ for supervising the centre.

    Install an 29 _____________________

    Restrict personal use of 30 ______________________ on computers.

     

    PART 4 – Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Business Cultures

    Power culture  
    Characteristics of organisation small
    31 _________________ power source
    few rules and procedures
    communication by 32 ____________________
    Advantage: can act quickly
    Disadvantage: might not act 33 _______________________
    Suitable employee: not afraid of 34 ________________________
    doesn’t need job security
    Role culture  
    Characteristics of organisation: large, many 35 ______________________
    specialised departments
    rules and procedure, e.g. job 36 ____________ and rules for discipline.
    Advantages: economies of scale
    successful when 37 _________________ ability is important
    Disadvantages: slow to see when 38 ____________________ is needed
    slow to react
    Suitable employee: values security
    doesn’t want 39 ________________________
    Task culture  
    Characteristics of organisation: project orientated
    in competitive market or making product with short life
    a lot of delegation
    Advantage: 40   ____________________________
    Disadvantages: no economies of scale or special expertise
    Suitable employee: likes to work in groups

     

    Show Answers

    1. Bhatt
    2. 31 March
    3. nursing
    4. 2
    5. meat
    6. bedsit
    7. theatre
    8. mature/ older
    9. town
    10. shared
    11. trees
    12. Friday/ Sunday
    13. farm
    14. C
    15. B
    16. A
    17. A
    18. I
    19. F
    20. E
    21. C
    22. B
    23. B
    24. C
    25. reading
    26. CD
    27. workbooks
    28. timetable/ schedule
    29. alarm
    30. email(s)
    31. central
    32. conversation(s)
    33. effectively
    34. risk(s)
    35. levels
    36. description(s)
    37. technical
    38. change
    39. responsibility
    40. flexible

     

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test 1

    IELTS LISTENING TEST 1


    PART 1 – Questions 1—10

     

    Questions: 1—5. Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

     

    Apartments Facilities Other Information Cost
    Rose Garden Apartments studio flat Example entertainment programme: Greek dancing £219
    Blue Bay Apartments large salt-water swimming pool – just 1_______ metres from beach – near shops £275
    2________ Apartments Terrace watersports £490
    The Grand – Greek paintings – 3________ – overlooking 4________

    – near a supermarket and a disco

    5 £_____

     

     

    GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS
    Insurance Benefits Maximum Amount
    Cancellation £ __________
    Hospital £600. Additional benefit allows a _________ to travel to resort
    8________ departure Up to £1000. Depends on reason
    Personal belongings Up to £3000; £500 for one _________

     

    Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10 ___________

    Direct phone line: 081260 543216

    PART 2 – Questions 11—20

     

    Questions 11—13. Choose the correct letter, AB or C.

    Winridge Forest Railway Park

    11. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from

    • A – his childhood hobby.
    • B – his interest in landscape design.
    • C – his visit to another park.

    12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when

    • A – the weather was expected to be good.
    • B – the children weren’t at school.
    • C – there were fewer farming commitments.

    13. Since opening, the park has had

    • A – 50.000 visitors.
    • B – 1.000,000 visitors,
    • C – 1,500,000 visitors.

    Questions: 14-18.

    What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-18.

     

    Area of work

    • A      advertising
    • B      animal care
    • C      building
    • D     educational links
    • E      engine maintenance
    • F      food and drink
    • G     sales
    • H     staffing

     

    People
    14.    Simon (the speaker) _________
    15.    Liz                                _________
    16.    Sarah                          _________
    17.    Duncan                       _________
    18.    Judith                          _________

     

     

    Feature Size Biggest challenge Target age group
    Railway 1.2 km Making tunnels
    Go-Kart arena 19 _____ Removing mounds on the track 20 _______ year-olds

     

    PART 3 – Questions 21-30

     

    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Study Skills Tutorial –  Caroline  Benning

     

    Dissertation topic:       the 21 __________

    Strengths:              •          22 ___________

    •     computer modelling

    Weaknesses:     •        lack of background information

    •     poor  23 _________ skills

     

    Possible strategy Benefits Problems
    peer  group discussion increases  24 __________ dissertations tend to contain   the same 25 _______
    use the 26 _______ support service provides structured programme limited 27 ________
    consult study skills books are a good source of reference can be too 28 ________

     

    Recommendations:     •          use a card index

    •      read all notes 29 ___________

    Next tutorial date:       30 ______________ January

     

     

    Questions: 31 and 32. Choose the correct letter, AB or  C.

    31. The owners of the underground house

    • A – had no experience of living in a rural area.
    • B – were interested in environmental issues.
    • C – wanted a professional project manager.

    32. What does the speaker say about the site of the house?

    • A – The land was quite cheap.
    • B – Stone was being extracted nearby.
    • C – It was in a completely unspoiled area.

    Questions: 33-40. Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The Underground House

    Design

    •          Built in the earth, with two floors

    •          The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of 33 ___________

    •          Photovoltaic tiles were attached

    •          A layer of foam was used to improve the 34 __________ of the building

    Special features

    •          To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and 35 __________

    •          In future, the house may produce more 36 _______ than it needs

    •          Recycled wood was used for the 37 __________ of the house

    •          The system for processing domestic 38 ____________ is organic

    Environmental issues

    •          The use of large quantities of 39 __________ in construction was environmentally harmful

    •          But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within 40 _________


    Show Answers

    1. 300
    2. Sunshade
    3. balcony
    4. forest/forests
    5. 319
    6. 10,000
    7. relative
    8. missed
    9. item
    10. Ludlow
    11. C
    12. A
    13. C
    14. E
    15. H
    16. F
    17. C
    18. G
    19. 120
    20. 5 to 12
    21. fishing
    22. statistics
    23. note
    24. confidence
    25. ideas
    26. student
    27. places
    28. general
    29. 3 times
    30. 25
    31. B
    32. A
    33. glass
    34. insulation
    35. windows
    36. electricity
    37. floor/floors
    38. waste
    39. concrete
    40. 15 years

     

  • IELTS Listening Test 57

    IELTS LISTENING TEST 57


    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Tick the appropriate letters A-D.

    1. How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?
     A three weeks
     B less than three weeks
     C more than three weeks
     D more than four weeks

    2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because
     A it is the end of the academic year
     B Hannah is a new student
     C the area has lots of new technology companies
     D the town is small

    3. £400 a month for rent is
     A higher than Hannah has paid before
     B lower than Hannah has paid before
     C not cheap for the area
     D cheap for the area

    4. At the moment Hannah is living
     A in a hostel
     B in a suitcase
     C in a hotel
     D in a flat

    5. Hannah’s new flat
     A is a bit noisy
     B is on the second floor
     C has two bedrooms
     D has a large roof terrace

    Questions 6 and 7
    Complete Dad’s note.

    Hannah’s address:
    (6)  Whitehart Road
    (7)  9RJ.

    Questions 8-10
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete each space.

    8. Hannah plans to travel to her parents’ house on Friday 
    9. Hannah’s Dad will return the van on 
    10. The journey time is about 

     

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Circle FOUR letters A-H.

    Which FOUR planned developments are mentioned?
     A a village town hall
     B a leisure centre
     C a play area for children
     D a hospital
     E an industrial development
     F extra houses
     G a steel works
     H a motorway

    Questions 15-18

    Tick Column A if the individual is in favour of the proposals. Tick Column B if the individual is against the proposals.

    (15)                    (16) 
    (17)                    (18) 

    Questions 19 and 20
    Circle the correct letter A-D.

    19. Upton is
     A close to Tartlesbury
     B far from Tartlesbury
     C connected by rail to Tartlesbury
     D a town with a university

    20. The College has
     A never had a 100% success rate
     B had a 100% success rate this year
     C always been very successful
     D never been successful

     

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

    21. How many essays do the students have to write? 
    22. What percentage does the written exam account for? 
    23. How many marks did Carl get for his latest essay? 
    24. How many marks did Pamela get for her latest essay? 
    25. When was the marking system explained before? 

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    (26)                  (27) 
    (28)                  (29) 
    (30) 

     

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Circle the correct letters A-D.

    31. The total number of lectures mentioned by the lecturer is
     A ten
     B thirteen
     C six
     D eight

    32. The lunch break of the average British worker is
     A on the increase
     B shorter than it used to be
     C 36 minutes
     D precisely 30 minutes

    33. Which graph shows the change as regards sick leave?           Graph

     A
     B
     C
     D

    34. There will be another lecture on stress in work and study
     A given by Professor Butt
     B on the calendar
     C in about a fortnight
     D in a week’s time

    35. Which of the following is mentioned?
     A Most workers say they do not take all their holidays.
     B Under half of the workers say they do not take all their holidays.
     C Employers do not believe workers.
     D About a third of healthy workers take days off sick.

    Questions 36-39
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Employees now working (36)  physically and mentally
    Productivity up in many (37) 
    In 2002, local car plant vehicle per employee on rise to (38) 
    Car industry once though to be (39) 

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A-D.

    40. Dr Butt asks those students to see him who
     A want to work at the plant
     B have chosen to do the project
     C want to write extra essays
     D are new

     


    Show Answers

    1. B
    2. C
    3. C
    4. C
    5. B
    6. 22B
    7. EX15
    8. evening after work
    9. saturday evening
    10. 3 hours
    11. B
    12. E
    13. F
    14. H
    15. A
    16. A
    17. B
    18. B
    19. A
    20. B
    21. 5
    22. 50%
    23. 18
    24. 14
    25. in first tutorial
    26. relevant
    27. elegant
    28. impossible
    29. excellent
    30. much better
    31. B
    32. B
    33. A
    34. C
    35. B
    36. beyond their limits
    37. areas of industry
    38. 100
    39. collapsing
    40. B

     

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